JIPMAT 2024 Question Paper With Detailed PDF Solutions

JIPMAT 2024 Paper With Answers & Explanation

Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 1 Given below are two statements:
In class ‘X’ of 30 students, 24 passed in first division; in another class ‘Y’ of 35 students, 28 passed in first division.
Statement (I): Class ‘X’ has more percentage of students getting first division.
Statement (II): Both classes have same percentage of students getting first division.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.

3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 2 If the seven-digit number 94a29b6 is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (2a + 3b) for a ≠ b?

1) 35

2) 37

3) 23

4) 21

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 3 A candidate scoring x% marks in an examination fails by ‘a’ marks while another candidate who scores y% marks, get ‘b’ marks more than the minimum required pass marks. What is the maximum marks for the examination?

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 4 An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 20√3 cm. What is the length of the side of the triangle?

1) 30 cm

2) 40 cm

3) 50 cm

4) 60 cm

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 5

1) 1.25

2) 1/5

3) 0

4) 24

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 6 What will be the least number which when divided by 12, 21, and 35 leaves 6 as a remainder in each case?

1) 426

2) 326

3) 536

4) 436

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

LCM (12, 21, 35) + 6 = 426

Q. 7

1) 1/35

2) 3/35

3) 5/37

4) 2/35

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 8 Arrange the following fractions in descending order.
(A) 5/9
(B) 7/11
(C) 8/15
(D) 11/17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

2) (A), (C), (D), (B)

3) (D), (B), (C), (A)

4) (D), (B), (A), (C)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 9 The average of five consecutive numbers is a. If the next two numbers are also included, how will the average vary?

1) It shall increase by 1.

2) It shall increase by 1.4.

3) It shall remain the same.

4) It shall increase by 2.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 10 A man sold 3/5th of his articles at a gain of 20% and the remaining at the cost price. The gain earned in the transaction is ______.

1) 8%

2) 14%

3) 12%

4) 16%

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 11 A company offers four types of successive discounts (A), (B), (C), and (D) (as given below) on the marked price of an article. Arrange these successive discounts (A), (B), (C) and (D) in ascending order based on the final price of the article after discounts.
(A) 25 % and 15%
(B)30 % and 10 %
(C) 35 % and 5 %
(D)15 % and 20%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (D), (C)

2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 12 An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 20√3 cm. The centroid of the triangle ABC is at a distance d from the vertex A, then d is equal to:

1) 15 cm

2) 20 cm

3) 20√3 cm

4) 30√3 cm

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 13

1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 14 Given below are two statements:
Given that a : b = 5 : 3 and b : c = 2 : 5, then (c – a) will be equal to
Statement (I): 10 (a + c)
Statement (II):10a + 25b
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.

3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 15 An amount doubles itself at compound interest in 5 years. How many years will it take to make the amount 16 times itself?

1) 25

2) 15

3) 16

4) 20

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Directions for questions 16 and 17:

Ram and Shyam run a race between points A and B, 5 km apart. Ram starts at 9 AM from A at a speed of 5 km/hr, reaches B and returns to A at the same speed. Shyam starts at 9 : 45 AM from A at a speed of 10 km/hr, reaches B and comes back to A at the same speed.

Q. 16 At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?

1) 10 : 20 AM

2) 10 : 30 AM

3) 10 : 40 AM

4) 10 : 50 AM

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 17 At what time do Ram and Shyam meet each other?

1) 10 : 00 AM

2) 10 : 10 AM

3) 10 : 20 AM

4) 10 : 30 AM

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 18 The factors of polynomial x³ – 6x² + 11x – 6 are:

1) (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3)

2) (x – 1) (x + 2) (x + 3)

3) (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3)

4) (x – 1) (x – 2) (x + 3)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 19 The points (2, 2), (6, 3) and (4, 11) are vertices of:

1) Equilateral triangle

2) Isosceles triangle

3) Right-angled triangle

4) Scalene triangle

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 20 A is 40% less efficient than B, who can do the same work in 20% less time than C. If A and B together can complete 80% work in 12 days, then in how many days 60% work can be completed by B and C together?

1) 2 days

2) 4 days

3) 8 days

4) 16 days

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 21 If each side of a cube is decreased by 19%, then the decrease in surface area is:

1) 40%

2) 34.39%

3) 38.4%

4) 19%

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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 22 A circle, square, equilateral triangle and regular pentagon have the same areas.
Arrange the following in ascending order based on their perimeters.
(A) Circle
(B) Square
(C) Equilateral triangle
(D) Regular pentagon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (C), (D), (B), (A)

2) (A), (B), (C), (D)

3) (A), (D), (B), (C)

4) (D), (B), (C), (A)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Figures with equal area and different perimeters follow the rule given below.
Higher the number of sides of a figure, smaller will be its perimeter.
Equilateral Triangle > Square > Regular Pentagon > Circle

Q. 23

1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.

3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 24 Fifteen people from different places come together for a family reunion. Each one of them had two gifts each for every other person. When the gifts were exchanged they hugged each other. What is the difference between the number of hugs and the number of gifts exchanged?

1) 315

2) 545

3) 330

4) 11

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

No. of gifts with each member = 2 × 14 = 28 Total gifts = 15 × 28 = 420
Total handshakes = 14 + 13 + 12 + ..... + 1 = 105 Difference = 420 – 105 = 315.

Q. 25 A speaks the truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other in narrating the same incident?

1) 5%

2) 15%

3) 35%

4) 45%

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 26

1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 27 A person travels three equal distances at a speed of ‘a’ km/hr, ‘b’ km/hr and ‘c’ km/hr respectively. What is the average speed for the whole journey?

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 28 If sin θ + cos θ = √7/2, then (sin θ – cos θ) is equal to:

1) 0

2) 1/2

3) 1

4) √2

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 29 The sides of four triangles are given below.
Which of them forms a right triangles?
(A) 20 cm, 22 cm, 24 cm
(B) 15 cm, 32 cm, 37 cm
(C) 11 cm, 60 cm, 61 cm
(D) 6 cm, 8 cm, 10 cm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) and (B) only

2) (C) only

3) (D) only

4) (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

(11, 60, 61) and (6, 8, 10) formed right angle triangle as they are Pythagorean triplets.

Q. 30

1) a/bc

2) b/ac

3) c/ab

4) 1/abc

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 31 By selling two articles for Rs.800, a person gains the cost price of three articles. The profit percent is:

1) 125%

2) 140%

3) 120%

4) 150%

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 32 If the roots of the equation x² – px + 54 = 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3, then value of p is:

1) 18

2) 21

3) –21

4) 15

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 33 If highest common factor of x² – px – q and 5x² – 3px – 15q is (x – 3), then value of (p, q) will be:

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning

Q. 34

1) 10 : 30 AM, Thursday

2) 9 : 15 PM, Wednesday

3) 10 : 30 AM, Wednesday

4) 10 : 00 PM, Wednesday

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 35 The main statement is followed by two conclusions. Select the one alternative that logically follows from the main statement.
Statement : The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy crisis in the world.

Conclusions:
(I) Modern technology is gradually replacing the conventional sources of energy.
(II) The excessive exploitation of environment has led to depletion of conventional sources of energy.

1) Only conclusion I follows

2) Only conclusion II follows

3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4) Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the ability to deduce logical conclusions based on a given statement. The student must determine which conclusion logically follows from the provided statement.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows The statement asserts that non-conventional energy sources can solve the energy crisis. However, it does not explicitly mention anything about the replacement of conventional sources by modern technology (conclusion I) or the depletion of conventional sources due to environmental exploitation (conclusion II).
Therefore, neither conclusion logically follows from the given statement.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Only conclusion I follows
Explanation: Conclusion I assumes modern technology is replacing conventional sources of energy, but this is not explicitly stated in the given statement.
2. Only conclusion II follows
Explanation: Conclusion II assumes environmental exploitation has led to the depletion of conventional energy sources, but the statement does not provide information about environmental exploitation.
4. Both conclusions I and II follow
Explanation: This option is incorrect because the statement does not support either conclusion I or II.

Q. 36 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): When lightning strikes, the sound is heard a little after the flash is seen.
Reason (R): The velocity of light is greater then that of the sound.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Assertion (A) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of the relationship between an assertion and a reason, determining whether the reason accurately explains the assertion.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) states that the sound of lightning is heard after the flash is seen, which is true. Reason (R) explains this phenomenon by stating that light travels faster than sound, which is also true and correctly explains the assertion.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: This option is incorrect because Reason (R) directly explains why the sound is heard after the flash: light travels faster than sound.
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation: This option is incorrect because Reason (R) is a true statement; light indeed travels faster than sound.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: This option is incorrect because Assertion (A) is a true statement based on the observed phenomenon during a lightning strike.

Q. 37 Six girls are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre of the circle. Sonia is sitting opposite Radhika. Purnima is sitting to the right of Radhika but to the left of Deepti. Monika is sitting to the left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting to the right of Sonia and to the left of Monika. Now Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika mutually exchange their positions. Who will be sitting to the left of Deepti?

1) Sonia

2) Monika

3) Radhika

4) Purnima

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 38

1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 39 Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Pattern)
(A) 8, 13, 21, 32, 46, 63, ?
(B) 20, 80, 30, 60, 40, ?, 50, 20
(C) 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26, ?
(D) 6, 13, 25, 51, ?

List-II (Missing Terms)
(I) 40
(II) 101
(III) 83
(IV)35

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 40 Find the pair of numbers that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below: 90, 180, 12, 50, 100, ?, ?, 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3.

1) 20, 75

2) 200, 150

3) 150, 1

4) 120, 30

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

90, 180, 12, 50, 100, ?, ?, 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3 90 = 30 × 3 i.e., product of last 2 terms.
180 = 30 × 6 i.e., product of 2nd & 3rd last terms.
12 = 2 × 6 i.e product of 3rd & 4th last terms and so on. Therefore, first missing term is 50 × 4 = 200 and second missing term is 50 × 3 = 150.

Q. 41 A cashier has Rs.620 in the denominations of two-rupee notes, ten-rupee notes and fiftyrupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he/she has?

1) 25

2) 35

3) 12

4) 30

Correct Answer
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Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 42 A cube is coloured red on all of its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The number of smaller cubes with two surfaces painted is 36.
(B) The number of smaller cubes with one surface painted is 24.
(C) The number of smaller cubes with no surface painted is 8.
(D) The number of smaller cubes with at least two surfaces painted is 30.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B) and (D) only

2) (B), (C) and (D) only

3) (B) and (C) only

4) (A) and (D) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 43 Find the missing term that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below:
A2Y, B8V, D33R, ?, K765G.

1) G134M

2) H142M

3) J176P

4) G148M

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 44 Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, ‘this man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law.” How is the woman’s husband related to the man in photograph?

1) Grandson

2) Son

3) Nephew

4) Son-in-law

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 45 There is a certain relationship between two given terms on one side of (: :) and one term is giving on the other side of (: :) . Another term is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation, with this term, as the terms of given pair.
AFHO : GBDJ : : CHFM : ?

1) GBIM

2) GBLD

3) GPLD

4) IDBH

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 46

1) (A) and (C) only

2) (B) and (D) only

3) (C) and (D) only

4) (B) and (C) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 47 In a certain code language, if GREEN is coded as 1677209, then how would BLUE be coded in that language?

1) 723144

2) 521122

3) 723142

4) 721144

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 48 Find the odd word among the following:

1) Tuberculosis

2) Diphtheria

3) Measles

4) Typhoid

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify the odd one out in a list of words based on their meanings.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. Typhoid
All the words listed (Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Measles) are diseases caused by bacteria or viruses. Typhoid, while also a disease, is specif ically a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi, setting it apart from the others in terms of its bacterial origin and method of transmission.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Tuberculosis
Explanation: Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection affecting the lungs and is not the odd one out.
2. Diphtheria
Explanation: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection affecting the throat and is not the odd one out.
3. Measles
Explanation: Measles is a viral infection causing a skin rash and fever and is not the odd one out.

Q. 49 ‘Conscience’ is related to ‘Wrong’ in the same way as ‘Police’ is related to ______.

1) Court

2) Law

3) Discipline

4) Crime

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify analogical relationships between pairs of words.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. Crime
Just as ‘conscience’ is related to identifying ‘wrong,’ ‘police’ are related to addressing ‘crime.’ Both pairs reflect a relationship of identifying and managing misconduct or illegal activities.
Incorrect Answers Explanation: 1. Court
Explanation: Courts adjudicate cases but are not directly analogous to how conscience relates to wrong.
2. L aw
Explanation: Law is a set of rules, not an entity that enforces rules like police in the context provided.
3. Discipline
Explanation: Discipline is related to order and control but does not match the specific relationship between police and crime.

Q. 50 Five friends A, B, C, D and E travelled to five different cities; Pune, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai by different modes of transport; bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat from Goa. Further, the following information is given:
(A) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
(B) C went to Bengaluru by car and B went to Kolkata by aeroplane.
(C) D travelled by boat and E travelled by train.
(D) Goa is not connected by bus to Delhi and Pune.

Now, which of the following pair of person and mode of transport is NOT correct?

1) A - Bus

2) B - Aeroplane

3) D - Boat

4) E - Car

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Directions for questions 51 to 53: The following table gives the expendigure details of a family during the years 2011 to 2015. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

Q. 51 Considering the total expenditure for all the five years together, what is the percentage expenditure on house rent?

1) 15%

2) 10%

3) 12%

4) 8%

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 52 What is the percentage increase in expenditure on education during 2011 to 2015?

1) 50%

2) 75%

3) 100%

4) 150%

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Expenditure on education in 2011 is 150 and in 2015 is 300. It is doubled, so increases by 100%.

Q. 53 In the light of the total expenditure for 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014 and 2015, what will be the likely expenditure in 2016?

1) Rs.30,00,000

2) Rs.32,00,000

3) Rs.35,00,000

4) Rs.37,00,000

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 54 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INSTRUCTION which have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 55

1) 9

2) 12

3) 6

4) 4

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

'9' represents the uneducated women with government and private job.

Q. 56 Unscramble the letters in the given words to generate meaningful words and then find the odd one out.
POROT, ROPUG, BMO, SALCS

1) POROT

2) ROPUG

3) BMO

4) SALCS

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question requires the student to unscramble letters to form meaningful words and identify the odd one out.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. BMO
The unscrambled words are:
- POROT -> TROOP
- ROPUG -> GROUP
- BMO -> MOB
- SALCS -> CLASS
‘MOB’ is the odd one out as it represents a disorganized group, whereas ‘troop,’ ‘group,’ and ‘class’ imply organized groups.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. POROT
Explanation: TROOP is an organized group, not the odd one out.
2. ROPUG
Explanation: GROUP is an organized set, not the odd one out.
4. SALCS
Explanation: CLASS is an organized category, not the odd one out.

Q. 57

1) 19

2) 17

3) 21

4) 23

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Marking all the vertices by using letters and counting the triangles, we get 21 triangles

Q. 58 A square park PQRS of side 90 m is so located that its diagonal PR is form north to south and the corner Q is to the west of S. Radha and Mohan start walking along the sides from Q and R respectively in clockwise and anticlockwise directions with speeds of 8 km/hr and 10 km/hr. Where will they cross each other the second time?

1) On PS at a distance of 30 m from P.

2) On QR at a distance of 10 m from Q.

3) On PS at a distance of 30 m from S.

4) On QR at a distance of 10 m from R.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 59 Prakash remembers that his wife Roshni’s birthday falls after 20^th May but before 28^th May, while Jyoti remembers that her mother Roshni’s birthday falls after 26^th May but before 30^th May. On what date does Roshni’s birthday fall?

1) 26^th May

2) 27^th May

3) 28^th May

4) 29^th May

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

According to Prakash, Roshila's birthday - 20 < 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 < 28
According to Jyoti, Roshni's birthday - 26 < 27, 28, 29 < 30
From both, the common date is 27^th May.

Q. 60

1) Rs.6,000

2) Rs.5,500

3) Rs.4,500

4) Rs.10,500

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 61 The following graph shows Gross Traffic Receipts and Total Expenditure (in Rs.) from 2015 to 2019.

In order to make a profit of 10% what should have been the approximate gross traffic receipts in 2016, total expenditure remaining the same?

1) 5667

2) 5876

3) 6444

4) 7667

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 62

1) 1

2) 6

3) 3

4) 5

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

In last two figures of dice '2' is flipped and stays on the same face, so 5 is opposite to 4 and 3 is opposite to 1.

Q. 63

1) 72°

2) 61.2°

3) 60°

4) 54.8°

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 64 Which of the following words CANNOT be formed from the letters of the word ‘INFRASTRUCTURE’?

1) Nature

2) Charter

3) Fracture

4) Restrain

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

'Charter' can not be formed as 'h' is not in infrastructure.

Q. 65 In the following question, a Statement is given followed by Arguments I and II. Choose the best option.
Statement:
Should public holiday be declared on demise of important national leaders?
Arguments:
(I) No, such unscheduled holidays hamper national progress.
(II) Yes, people would like to pay their homage to departed soul.

1) Only argument I is strong.

2) Only argument II is strong.

3) Neither argument I nor II is strong.

4) Both arguments I and II are strong.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question evaluates the student’s ability to assess the strength of arguments related to a given statement.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. Only argument I is strong.
Argument I is strong because unscheduled holidays can indeed hamper national progress by disrupting regular activities and productivity.
Argument II, while it reflects a sentimental view, is not as strong in terms of national interest and progress.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. Only argument II is strong.
Explanation: Argument II is weaker compared to Argument I in the context of national progress.
3. Neither argument I nor II is strong.
Explanation: Argument I is strong, so this option is incorrect.
4. Both arguments I and II are strong.
Explanation: Argument II is not as strong as Argument I in terms of the impact on national progress.

Q. 66 The following graph shows economics data for the financial year 2023.

In 2023, the Middle East and North Africa’s percent growth in GDP was approximately what percent greater than Southern Continental Africa’s percent growth in GDP?

1) 225 %

2) 317 %

3) 367 %

4) 417 %

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Q. 67 Identify the error in the sentence below having three components marked as (i), (ii), and (iii):
I was disappointed
(i)
when I came for seeing you last evening
(ii)
but could not find you at home.
(iii)

1) (i)

2) (ii)

3) (iii)

4) (ii) and (iii)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify grammatical errors in a sentence.
Correct Answer Explanation:
(b)
The correct form should be “when I came to see you last evening.” The phrase “for seeing” is incorrect in this context.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
(a)
Explanation: Part (i) is correct and does not have an error.
(c)
Explanation: Part (iii) is correct and does not have an error.
(ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Only part (ii) has an error, not (iii).

Q. 68 The idiom “a gentleman at large” means ______.

1) a man in the crowd

2) a man without a job

3) a man who runs around

4) a man who is generous

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of idioms and their meanings.
Correct Answer Explanation:
(b) a man without a job
The idiom “a gentleman at large” means a man who does not have a job or occupation.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
(a) a man in the crowd
Explanation: This option does not fit the meaning of the idiom.
(c) a man who runs around
Explanation: This option does not fit the meaning of the idiom.
(d) a man who is generous
Explanation: This option does not fit the meaning of the idiom.

Q. 69 Pick the correct meaning of the phrase
“ULTRA VIRES”.

1) Internet virus

2) Contagious disease

3) Within authority

4) Beyond jurisdiction

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s understanding of legal terminology.
Correct Answer Explanation:
Beyond jurisdiction
“Ultra vires” is a Latin term used in law to describe actions taken beyond the scope of legal authority.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
Internet virus
Explanation: This is incorrect as it does not relate to the legal term.
Contagious disease
Explanation: This is incorrect as it does not relate to the legal term.
Within authority
Explanation: This is the opposite of the term’s meaning.

Q. 70 Pick the correct antonym of the term
“DILATE”.

1) Dilute

2) Differentiate

3) Contract

4) Expand

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s knowledge of antonyms.
Correct Answer Explanation:
Contract
The antonym of “dilate” (to expand or enlarge) is “contract” (to shrink or become smaller).
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
Dilute
Explanation: This means to make thinner or weaker and is not the opposite of “dilate.”
Differentiate
Explanation: This means to distinguish or make different, not the opposite of “dilate.”
Expand
Explanation: This is a synonym, not an antonym of “dilate.”

Q. 71 Choose the option which best replaces the underlined phrase.
When Dr. Sapra came to the school in 1995, Dr. Anand had already been teaching there since five years.

1) have already been teaching there for five years

2) had already been teaching there for five years

3) has already been teaching there since five years

4) No improvement

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of correct grammatical structures, specifically perfect tenses.
Correct Answer Explanation:
had already been teaching there for five years The correct tense is the past perfect continuous, indicating an action that started in the past and continued up to another point in the past.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
(a) have already been teaching there for five years Explanation: This uses the present perfect continuous, which is incorrect for the context.
(c) has already been teaching there since five years Explanation: This is incorrect as it mixes tenses and uses “since” improperly.
(d) No improvement
Explanation: The original sentence needs improvement to be grammatically correct.

Q. 72 Pick the active voice of the following sentence: “The national anthem is being sung by the players”.

1) The players were singing the national anthem.

2) The players are singing the national anthem.

3) The players sing the national anthem.

4) The players have sung the national anthem.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to convert a passive voice sentence into active voice.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. The players are singing the national anthem.
This option correctly converts the passive voice into the active voice.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. The players were singing the national anthem.
Explanation: This is in the past continuous tense, not present continuous.
3. The players sing the national anthem.
Explanation: This is in the simple present tense, not present continuous.
4. The players have sung the national anthem.
Explanation: This is in the present perfect tense, not present continuous.

Q. 73 Pick the correct option to complete the following sentence:
“All the students and teachers _______ this book.

1) likes

2) like

3) liking

4) are like

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s understanding of subject-verb agreement.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. like
“All the students and teachers” is a plural subject, so the verb should be “like.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. likes
Explanation: This is singular and does not agree with the plural subject.
3. liking
Explanation: This is the present participle form, not appropriate for the sentence.
4. are like
Explanation: This changes the meaning of the sentence.

Q. 74 Pick the word with the correct spelling.

1) Dicease

2) Desease

3) Discease

4) Disease

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify the correct spelling of a word.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. Disease
This is the correct spelling of the word.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Dicease
Explanation: Incorrect spelling.
2. Desease
Explanation: Incorrect spelling.
3. Discease
Explanation: Incorrect spelling.

Q. 75 Pick the best substitute for the following expression:
“One who does not care for literature or art”.

1) Dictator

2) Hypocrite

3) Philistine

4) Primitive

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s knowledge of specific vocabulary words and their definitions.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. Philistine
A philistine is someone who does not care for literature or art.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Dictator
Explanation: This refers to an authoritarian ruler, not related to literature or art.
2. Hypocrite
Explanation: This refers to someone who pretends to have virtues or beliefs they do not possess, not related to literature or art.
4. Primitive
Explanation: This refers to an early stage of development, not related to literature or art.

Q. 76 Which of the following is the synonym of the term “HACKNEYED”?

1) Important

2) Horrible

3) Cliched

4) Heightened

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s understanding of synonyms.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. Cliched
“Hackneyed” means overused and unoriginal, which is synonymous with “cliched.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Important
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “hackneyed.”
2. Horrible
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “hackneyed.”
4. Heightened
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “hackneyed.”

Q. 77 Pick the passive equivalent of the following sentence:
“The taxi will drop you at the airport.”

1) The taxi at the airport will be dropping you.

2) Dropping you at the airport will be done by the taxi.

3) The taxi is dropping you at the airport.

4) You will be dropped at the airport by the taxi.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to convert an active voice sentence into passive voice.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. You will be dropped at the airport by the taxi. This option correctly converts the active voice into the passive voice.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. The taxi at the airport will be dropping you.
Explanation: This does not correctly convey the original meaning and is not in passive voice.
2. Dropping you at the airport will be done by the taxi.
Explanation: This is awkward and not the proper passive form.
3. The taxi is dropping you at the airport.
Explanation: This is in active voice, not passive.

Q. 78 Which of the following options is the correct meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence?
“Should spending on the arts be met out of the public purse?

1) From the sum collected from public donation.

2) From the purse of the art enthusiasts.

3) From the money meant to be distributed to the poor and needy.

4) From the government money.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of idiomatic phrases and their meanings.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. From the government money
“The public purse” refers to government funds.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. From the sum collected from public donation.
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “public purse.”
2. From the purse of the art enthusiasts.
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “public purse.”
3. From the money meant to be distributed to the poor and needy.
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of “public purse.”

Q. 79 Choose the option which best replace the underlined phrase in the following sentence. “In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strike six I would be waiting here for an hour”.

1) Shall be waiting on

2) Shall have been waiting

3) Shall wait

4) No improvement

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify and correct grammatical errors in a sentence.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. Shall have been waiting
The correct future perfect continuous tense should be used to indicate an action that will be ongoing up to a point in the future.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Shall be waiting on
Explanation: Incorrect tense and structure.
3. Shall wait
Explanation: Incorrect tense for the context.
4. No improvement
Explanation: The original sentence needs improvement to be grammatically correct.

Q. 80 Out of the given options, pick the one which best expresses the following sentence in indirect speech.
The coach said, “Well done ! You have made me proud.”

1) The coach applauded and said that he has made him proud.

2) The coach applauds and says well done that he had made him proud.

3) The coach applauded and says well done and that he has made him proud.

4) The coach applauded and said that he had made him proud.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s ability to convert direct speech to indirect speech.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. The coach applauded and said that he had made him proud.
This correctly converts the direct speech into indirect speech, maintaining the past perfect tense.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. The coach applauded and said that he has made him proud.
Explanation: Incorrect use of present perfect tense.
2. The coach applauds and says well done that he had made him proud.
Explanation: Incorrect tense and structure.
3. The coach applauded and says well done and that he has made him proud.
Explanation: Mixed tenses are incorrect.

Q. 81 Pick the odd one out from the following options.

1) Plan for

2) Plan on

3) Plan out

4) Plan in

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify the odd one out based on usage and meaning.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. Plan in
“Plan in” is not a commonly used phrase compared to the others.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Plan for
Explanation: This is a common phrase used to indicate preparation.
2. Plan on
Explanation: This is a common phrase used to indicate intention.
3. Plan out
Explanation: This is a common phrase used to indicate detailed planning.

Q. 82 Pick the most appropriate punctuation mark for the following sentence:
“There goes the bell _______”

1) (.) full stop

2) (?) question mark

3) (!) exclamation mark

4) (:) colon

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of appropriate punctuation marks.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. (!) exclamation mark
An exclamation mark is appropriate to convey the sudden occurrence of the bell ringing.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (.) full stop
Explanation: This does not convey the sudden occurrence.
2. (?) question mark
Explanation: This is not appropriate as the sentence is not a question.
4. (:) colon
Explanation: This is not appropriate for the context.

Directions for questions 83 to 86:
Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
Are people _____(i)_____ or even typically, guided by reason, rather than, say, by passion or impulse? If the norms of rational behaviour are not followed by people in their actual behaviour, how can we seek the same answer to the rather different questions : what would be rational for a person to do? And what the person actually do? Shouldn’t the economists who make such double use of maximisation - whether through explicit reasoning _____(ii)_____ by implicit presumption - be invited to apply their minds to this?
A number of economists have indeed paid attention to systematic departures from rationality in actual choices made by people. One argument that has been invoked, in a line of reasoning proposed by Herbert Simon, goes by the name of bounded rationality. It concerns the possibility that people may not, in all cases, look for fully _____(iii)_____ choices because of their inability to be sufficiently focussed. There is considerable evidence, powerfully presented, for example, _____(iv)_____ Kahneman, Slovic and Tversky, that people may fail to understand adequately the nature of the uncertainty.

Q. 83 Pick the most appropriate word to fill (iv) in the given passage:

1) with

2) by

3) at

4) up

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s ability to choose the most appropriate word to complete a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. b y
The correct preposition to indicate the involvement of authors in presenting evidence is “by.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. with
Explanation: Incorrect preposition for this context.
3. at
Explanation: Incorrect preposition for this context.
4. up
Explanation:
Incorrect preposition for this context.

Q. 84 Pick the most appropriate word to fill (ii) in the given passage:

1)  and

2)  or

3)  along

4)  instead

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

2

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s ability to choose the most appropriate word to complete a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. or
The correct conjunction to indicate alternatives in the context of reasoning is “or.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. and
Explanation: This conjunction does not correctly convey the alternatives.
3. along
Explanation: This does not fit the context of reasoning alternatives.
4. instead
Explanation: This does not fit the context of the sentence.

Q. 85 Pick the most appropriate word to fill (iii) in the given passage:

1)  rational

2)  rationale

3)  rationally

4)  rationality

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

1

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s ability to choose the most appropriate word to complete a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. rational
The correct word to complete the phrase “fully rational choices” is “rational.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. rationale
Explanation: This is a noun meaning reasoning, not appropriate for the context.
3. rationally
Explanation: This is an adverb, not appropriate for the context.
4. rationality
Explanation: This is a noun, not appropriate for the context.

Q. 86 Pick the most appropriate word to fill (i) in the given passage

1)  invariable

2)  invariably

3)  invariabily

4)  invariability

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

2

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s ability to choose the most appropriate word to complete a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. invariably
The correct adverb to indicate consistency in the context of guidance is “invariably.”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. invariable
Explanation: This is an adjective, not appropriate for the context.
3. invariabily
Explanation: This is a misspelling and incorrect. 4. invariability
Explanation: This is a noun, not appropriate for the context.

Directions for questions 87 to 90:
Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
Literary criticism does not necessarily have to choose between textual or verbal and contextual study. The distinction between the two types of linguistic meaning is seen at two levels, formal and textual. Formal meaning in poetry is the level at which stylistic patterns occur but these are not restricted to mere form.
Panini discusses, in a few sutras scattered over his works, the influence of the concept of language in various spheres of suffixes, primary and secondary derivatives and compounds. Poetics is also indebted to grammar for the terms ‘Jati’ (genus), ‘Kriya’ (action), ‘Guna’ (quality) and ‘Dravya’ (individual/ substance) which it uses in connection with certain poetic figures or while dealing with the expressive function of words.
Literary criticism, in the Sanskrit tradition, has been understood to be a sastra by which is meant any systematic, well-formulated body of knowledge. A ‘sastraic’ exposition is supposed to involve inquiry into the nature of substance, nature of language and the validity of critical statements. Thus, a basic understanding of the grammatical and philosophical issues is a prerequisite for the understanding of critical questions.

Q. 87 Which inquiries are undertaken in ‘Sastraic’ expositions?
(A) Mainly primary and secondary derivatives of compounds.
(B) Nature of substance.
(C) Stylistic patterns.
(D) Nature of language.
(E) Validity of critical statements.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1)  (D) and (E) only

2)  (B), (A), (C) and (D) only

3)  (B), (D) and (E) only

4)  (B) and (C) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

3

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of specific information in a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. (B) (D) and (E) only
The inquiries undertaken in ‘Sastraic’ expositions involve the nature of substance (B), the nature of language (D), and the validity of critical statements (E).
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (D) and (E) only
Explanation: This excludes (B), which is also correct.
2. (B) (A) (C) and (D) only
Explanation: This includes (A) and (C), which are not correct.
4. (B) and (C) only
Explanation: This excludes (D) and (E), which are also correct.

Q. 88 Which word in the passage is close in meaning to ‘being logical and true’?

1)  Inquiry

2)  Formulated

3)  Compound

4)  Validity

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

4

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify a term that means “being logical and true.”
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. Validity
The term “validity” means being logical and true.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. Inquiry
Explanation: This means an investigation or examination, not necessarily logical or true.
2. Formulated
Explanation: This means to create or devise methodically, not necessarily logical or true.
3. Compound
Explanation: This means a combination of elements, not necessarily logical or true.

Q. 89 As per the passage, which of the following was primarily discussed by Panini?

1)  Terms like ‘jati’, ‘kriya’, ‘guna’ and ‘dravya’.

2)  Impact of language on derivative words.

3)  Philosophical issues.

4)  Critical questions.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

1

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of specific information in a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. Terms like ‘jati’ ‘kriya’ ‘guna’ and ‘dravya’ Panini primarily discussed terms like ‘jati’ ‘kriya’ ‘guna’ and ‘dravya.’
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. Impact of language on derivative words Explanation: This is not the primary focus of Panini’s discussion.
3. Philosophical issues
Explanation: This is not the primary focus of Panini’s discussion.
4. Critical questions
Explanation: This is not the primary focus of Panini’s discussion.

Q. 90 Which of the following statements are true about the given passage?
(A) Literary criticism must use either textual or contextual study.
(B) Formal and textual are two levels and help in ascertaining linguistic meaning.
(C) Critical questions cannot be understood without a philosophical and grammatical understanding.
(D) Panini has written in a compact format of Sutras.
(E) Sanskrit has a tradition of literary criticism for a long time.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1)  (A) and (E) only

2)  (C), (D) and (B) only

3)  (C) and (D) only

4)  (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

4

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify true statements about a given passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. (B) (C) (D) and (E) only
The correct statements are:
(B) Formal and textual are two levels and help in ascertaining linguistic meaning.
(C) Critical questions cannot be understood without a philosophical and grammatical understanding.
(D) Panini has written in a compact format of Sutras.
(E) Sanskrit has a tradition of literary criticism for a long time.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (A) and (E) only
Explanation: This excludes (B), (C), and (D), which are also correct.
2. (C) (D) and (B) only
Explanation: This excludes (E), which is also correct.
3. (C) and (D) only
Explanation: This excludes (B) and (E), which are also correct.

Directions for questions 91 to 93:
Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
All great thinkers live and move on a high plane of thought. It is only there they can breathe freely. It is only in contact with spirits like themselves they can live harmoniously and attain that serenity which comes from ideal companionship. I have always thought that the strongest argument in favour of the Baconian theory was, that on man, however indubitable his genius, could have written the plays and sonnets that have come down to us under Shakespeare's name who had not the liberal education of Bacon. How this habit of intercourse with the gods makes one impatient of mere men. The magnificent ideals that have ever haunted the human mind, and given us our highest proofs of a future immortality by reason of the impossibility of their fulfilment here, are splintered into atoms by contact with life's realities. Hence comes our sublime discontent. It may be spiritual or intellectual pride that is engendered on the high plane of intellectual life. But whatever it is, it becomes inevitable. A habitual mediation on the vast problems that underline human life, and rare knit into human destinies. It is easy to understand, therefore, why such thinkers fly to the solitude of their own thoughts, or the silent companionship of the immortals; and if they care to present their views in prose or verse to the world, that these views take a sombre and melancholy setting from "the pale cast of thought" in which they were engendered.

Q. 91 Given below are two statements, One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The passage presents a rationale behind the great writer’s flight to the solitude of their thoughts and silent companionship of immortals.
Reason (R): They do so because they are melancholic and naturally averse to ordinary humanity and disgust of unregenerated masses.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1)  Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

2)  Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

3)  (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

4)  (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

1

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of the relationship between an assertion and a reason.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
The passage presents a rationale behind great writers’ preference for solitude, and this is correctly explained by their melancholic nature and aversion to ordinary humanity.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).
3. (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
Explanation: Reason (R) is correct and explains Assertion (A).
4. (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: Assertion (A) is correct.

Q. 92 Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The author upholds the Baconian theory because, according to him despite being a genius, Shakespeare could not write the plays and sonnets that have come down to us under his name.
Statement (II): He holds that Bacon was more resourceful than Shakespeare because he had the liberal education.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.

3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.

4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s understanding of specific information in a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
The author upholds the Baconian theory because Shakespeare could not have written the plays and sonnets without the liberal education that Bacon had.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
Explanation: Both statements are correct
according to the passage.
3. Statement (I) is correct, but Statement (II) is incorrect.
Explanation: Statement (II) is also correct according to the passage.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect, but Statement (II) is correct.
Explanation: Statement (I) is also correct according to the passage.

Q. 93 What does the phrase “THE PALE CAST OF THOUGHT” mean?

1) State of mind during sickness.

2) Sudden and quick flash of thoughts.

3) Unhappy and disillusional state of mind.

4) Serious and prolonged thinking.

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s understanding of a specific phrase in the context of a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. Unhappy and disillusional state of mind “The pale cast of thought” refers to a state of mind characterised by unhappiness and disillusionment.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. State of mind during sickness
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of the phrase.
2. Sudden and quick flash of thoughts
Explanation: This does not match the meaning of the phrase.
4. Serious and prolonged thinking
Explanation: This is close but does not fully capture the disillusional aspect.

Q. 94 According to the author, why do the great thinkers need to attain and remain at high plane of thought?
(A) Because they want to enjoy harmony and serenity from ideal companionship.
(B) Because the experience of greatness makes them impatient of being ordinary men.
(C) Because the high plane of intellectual life instils a spiritual and intellectual pride in them.
(D) Because they are apathetic to commoners and solely eager to attain lofty ideals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B) and (C) only

2) (B), (C) and (D) only

3) (A), (C) and (D) only

4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question assesses the student’s understanding of specific information in a passage.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. (A) (B) and (C) only
The correct reasons why great thinkers need to attain and remain at a high plane of thought are:
(A) Because they want to enjoy harmony and serenity from ideal companionship.
(B) Because the experience of greatness makes them impatient of being ordinary men.
(C) Because the high plane of intellectual life instils a spiritual and intellectual pride in them.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. (B) (C) and (D) only
Explanation: (D) is not correct according to the passage.
3. (A) (C) and (D) only
Explanation: (D) is not correct according to the passage.
4. (A) (B) (C) and (D)
Explanation: (D) is not correct according to the passage.

Q. 95 Pick the part of the sentence with grammatical mistakes/errors.
(A) The economist were of the opinion
(B) that the government should give longer times to farmers
(C) to pay the loan instead of waiving the entire farm loan
(D) as doing so is not good for credit culture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) and (B) only

2) (A) and (C) only

3) (B) and (C) only

4) (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to identify grammatical errors in parts of a sentence.
Correct Answer Explanation:
1. (A) and (B) only
(A) should be “The economists were of the opinion”
(B) should be “that the government should give longer time to farmers”
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
2. (A) and (C) only
Explanation: (C) is correct as is.
3. (B) and (C) only
Explanation: (A) is also incorrect.
4. (C) and (D) only
Explanation: (D) is correct as is.

Q. 96 Match List-I with List-II
List-I (Phrase)
(A) Up for grabs
(B) Make hay while the sun shines
(C) Go haywire
(D) Get off lightly

List-II (Meaning)
(I) To be punished less severely than expected
(II) Become out of control
(III) To use opportunities while they last
(IV)Available for anyone interested

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to match phrases with their correct meanings.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. (A) - (IV) (B) - (III) (C) - (II) (D) - (I)
(A) Up for grabs - (IV) Available for anyone interested
(B) Make hay while the sun shines - (III) To use opportunities while they last
(C) Go haywire - (II) Become out of control
(D) Get off lightly - (I) To be punished less severely than expected
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (A) - (I) (B) - (II) (C) - (III) (D) - (IV) Explanation: Incorrect matching.
2. (A) - (II) (B) - (III) (C) - (IV) (D) - (I) Explanation: Incorrect matching.
3. (A) - (III) (B) - (IV) (C) - (I) (D) - (II) Explanation: Incorrect matching.

Q. 97 Out of the options given below, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
(A) For that we need people who possess not only high skills but high values as well.
(B) So the need of the hour is not only skillbased education but also value-inspired and value-based education.
(C) When we talk of investing in education, a question arises as to what kind of education needs to be given to the youngsters.
(D) Our aim is to evolve not only an affluent society, but an egalitarian, just, humane and compassionate society.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (D), (A), (C), (B)

2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

3) (C), (B), (D), (A)

4) (C), (D), (A), (B)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to arrange sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. (C) (D) (A) (B)
The logical order to form a coherent paragraph is:
(C) When we talk of investing in education a question arises as to what kind of education needs to be given to the youngsters.
(D) Our aim is to evolve not only an affluent society but an egalitarian just humane and compassionate society.
(A) For that we need people who possess not only high skills but high values as well.
(B) So the need of the hour is not only skill-based education but also value-inspired and value-based education.
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (D) (A) (C) (B)
Explanation: Incorrect order.
2. (A) (C) (B) (D)
Explanation: Incorrect order.
3. (C) (B) (D) (A)
Explanation: Incorrect order.

Q. 98 Match List-I with List-II
List-I (Underlined word)
(A) All men are mortal.
(B) He was all alone when I saw him.
(C) All spoke in his favour.
(D) He lost his all in speculation.

List-II (Meaning)
(I) Noun
(II) Pronoun
(III) Adverb
(IV)Adjective

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to match words with their correct parts of speech.
Correct Answer Explanation:
4. (A) - (IV) (B) - (III) (C) - (II) (D) - (I)
(A) All men are mortal. - (IV) Adjective
(B) He was all alone when I saw him. - (III) Adverb
(C) All spoke in his favour. - (II) Pronoun
(D) He lost his all in speculation. - (I) Noun
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (A) - (I) (B) - (II) (C) - (III) (D) - (IV)
Explanation: Incorrect matching.
2. (A) - (II) (B) - (III) (C) - (IV) (D) - (I)
Explanation: Incorrect matching.
3. (A) - (III) (B) - (IV) (C) - (I) (D) - (II)
Explanation: Incorrect matching.

Q. 99 Match List-I with List-II
List-I
(A) I shall speak
(B) I shall have spoken
(C) I shall have been speaking
(D) I shall be speaking

List-II
(I) Future Perfect Continuous Tense
(II) Simple Future Tense
(III) Future Continuous Tense
(IV)Future Perfect Tense

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to match sentences with their correct tenses.
Correct Answer Explanation:
3. (A) - (II) (B) - (IV) (C) - (I) (D) - (III)
(A) I shall speak - (II) Simple Future Tense
(B) I shall have spoken - (IV) Future Perfect Tense
(C) I shall have been speaking - (I) Future Perfect
Continuous Tense
(D) I shall be speaking - (III) Future Continuous Tense
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (A) - (I) (B) - (II) (C) - (III) (D) - (IV)
Explanation: Incorrect matching.
2. (A) - (II) (B) - (III) (C) - (IV) (D) - (I)
Explanation: Incorrect matching.
4. (A) - (IV) (B) - (III) (C) - (II) (D) - (I) Explanation: Incorrect matching.

Q. 100 In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A, B, C and D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence
(A) that is closely related to the peach tree
(B) almonds are commonly called nuts
(C) but they are actually seeds
(D) and they come from a tree

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

3) (C), (D), (A), (B)

4) (D), (A), (B), (C)

Correct Answer
and
Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Question Explanation: This question tests the student’s ability to rearrange parts of a sentence to form a meaningful sentence.
Correct Answer Explanation:
2. (B) (C) (D) (A)
The correct order to form a meaningful sentence is:
(B) almonds are commonly called nuts
(C) but they are actually seeds
(D) and they come from a tree
(A) that is closely related to the peach tree
Incorrect Answers Explanation:
1. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Explanation: Incorrect order.
3. (C) (D) (A) (B)
Explanation: Incorrect order.
4. (D) (A) (B) (C)
Explanation: Incorrect order.

JIPMAT 2024 Question Paper With Detailed PDF Solutions

JIPMAT 2024 Paper With Answers & Explanation

Quantitative Aptitude

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 2 If the seven-digit number 94a29b6 is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (2a + 3b) for a ≠ b?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 3 A candidate scoring x% marks in an examination fails by ‘a’ marks while another candidate who scores y% marks, get ‘b’ marks more than the minimum required pass marks. What is the maximum marks for the examination?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 4 An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 20√3 cm. What is the length of the side of the triangle?

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Explanation

Q. 5

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 6 What will be the least number which when divided by 12, 21, and 35 leaves 6 as a remainder in each case?

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Explanation

Q. 7

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 8 Arrange the following fractions in descending order. (A) 5/9 (B) 7/11 (C) 8/15 (D) 11/17 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 9 The average of five consecutive numbers is a. If the next two numbers are also included, how will the average vary?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 10 A man sold 3/5th of his articles at a gain of 20% and the remaining at the cost price. The gain earned in the transaction is ______.

Correct Answer

Explanation

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 12 An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 20√3 cm. The centroid of the triangle ABC is at a distance d from the vertex A, then d is equal to:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 13

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 14 Given below are two statements: Given that a : b = 5 : 3 and b : c = 2 : 5, then (c – a) will be equal to Statement (I): 10 (a + c) Statement (II):10a + 25b In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 15 An amount doubles itself at compound interest in 5 years. How many years will it take to make the amount 16 times itself?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 16 At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 17 At what time do Ram and Shyam meet each other?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 18 The factors of polynomial x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 are:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 19 The points (2, 2), (6, 3) and (4, 11) are vertices of:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 20 A is 40% less efficient than B, who can do the same work in 20% less time than C. If A and B together can complete 80% work in 12 days, then in how many days 60% work can be completed by B and C together?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 21 If each side of a cube is decreased by 19%, then the decrease in surface area is:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 22 A circle, square, equilateral triangle and regular pentagon have the same areas. Arrange the following in ascending order based on their perimeters. (A) Circle (B) Square (C) Equilateral triangle (D) Regular pentagon Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 23

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 24 Fifteen people from different places come together for a family reunion. Each one of them had two gifts each for every other person. When the gifts were exchanged they hugged each other. What is the difference between the number of hugs and the number of gifts exchanged?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 25 A speaks the truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other in narrating the same incident?

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 26

Correct Answer

Explanation

Q. 27 A person travels three equal distances at a speed of ‘a’ km/hr, ‘b’ km/hr and ‘c’ km/hr respectively. What is the average speed for the whole journey?

Q. 8 Arrange the following fractions in descending order.
(A) 5/9
(B) 7/11
(C) 8/15
(D) 11/17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q. 14 Given below are two statements:
Given that a : b = 5 : 3 and b : c = 2 : 5, then (c – a) will be equal to
Statement (I): 10 (a + c)
Statement (II):10a + 25b
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Q. 18 The factors of polynomial x³ – 6x² + 11x – 6 are:

Q. 22 A circle, square, equilateral triangle and regular pentagon have the same areas.
Arrange the following in ascending order based on their perimeters.
(A) Circle
(B) Square
(C) Equilateral triangle
(D) Regular pentagon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q. 29 The sides of four triangles are given below.
Which of them forms a right triangles?
(A) 20 cm, 22 cm, 24 cm
(B) 15 cm, 32 cm, 37 cm
(C) 11 cm, 60 cm, 61 cm
(D) 6 cm, 8 cm, 10 cm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q. 32 If the roots of the equation x² – px + 54 = 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3, then value of p is:

Q. 33 If highest common factor of x² – px – q and 5x² – 3px – 15q is (x – 3), then value of (p, q) will be:

Q. 39 Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Pattern)
(A) 8, 13, 21, 32, 46, 63, ?
(B) 20, 80, 30, 60, 40, ?, 50, 20
(C) 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26, ?
(D) 6, 13, 25, 51, ?

List-II (Missing Terms)
(I) 40
(II) 101
(III) 83
(IV)35

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q. 43 Find the missing term that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below:
A2Y, B8V, D33R, ?, K765G.

Q. 45 There is a certain relationship between two given terms on one side of (: :) and one term is giving on the other side of (: :) . Another term is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation, with this term, as the terms of given pair.
AFHO : GBDJ : : CHFM : ?