Direction (1-4): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: India is considering inviting expressions of interest to sell Air India Ltd by the end of next month as the government aims to complete the transaction this year, people with knowledge of the matter said. âThe government will conduct roadshows, as well as, be open to meet prospective buyers even before the expressions of interest are sought,â the people said, declining to be identified as the discussions are private. âThe process will likely allow the bidders to look at the accounts of the airline except for some portions that are confidential and also see the share purchase agreement,â they said without providing details. âThe potential bidders will have the option to make suggestions for changes in the sale terms during the process of expressing their interest in the deal,â the people said. The government is looking to sell its entire stake in the carrier, they said. DS Malik, a spokesman of the Ministry of Finance, did not immediately answer two calls made to his mobile phone. Dhananjay Kumar, a spokesman of Air India, declined to comment. The plan is being prepared after the governmentâs attempt to partially exit the carrier failed to attract any bidder last year. In her budget presentation for the current financial year, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the government will revive plans to sell Air India and the divestment would be part of the governmentâs efforts to raise Rs 1,05,000 crore ($15.3 billion) selling stakes in state-run companies. Air India, which is surviving on a Rs 30,000 crore taxpayer-funded bailout, has failed to maintain its market dominance as a slew of carriers including InterGlobe Aviation Ltd and SpiceJet Ltd started to offer ultra-cheap, on-time flights more than a decade ago. The state-run airline has total debts of $8.4 billion and posted losses of more than Rs 7,600 crore last year, according to provisional estimates. |
| Q.1 [11672558] Which of the following can be inferred as the primary cause of Air India's current predicament in the passage? |
| 1 Though it is trying to find it, Air India does not have enough money to survive in the long run. |
| 2 Air India has lost all of the government deposits it obtained last year. |
| 3 Air India is currently collecting funds from depositors and investors, causing them to be concerned about the stake sale. |
| 4 Air India has got competition from many other airlines and it has simply failed to live up to it. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Rationale: Refer to, âAir India, which is â¦.on-time flights more than a decade ago.â As can be seen from the preceding lines, Air India has faced stiff competition from a variety of other airlines since they began offering low-cost tickets and on-time service. We can easily choose option 4 from the list of choices because it explains the real reason for Air India's demise as a carrier in India. Other possibilities are ruled out because they contradict the passage. |
Direction (1-4): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: India is considering inviting expressions of interest to sell Air India Ltd by the end of next month as the government aims to complete the transaction this year, people with knowledge of the matter said. âThe government will conduct roadshows, as well as, be open to meet prospective buyers even before the expressions of interest are sought,â the people said, declining to be identified as the discussions are private. âThe process will likely allow the bidders to look at the accounts of the airline except for some portions that are confidential and also see the share purchase agreement,â they said without providing details. âThe potential bidders will have the option to make suggestions for changes in the sale terms during the process of expressing their interest in the deal,â the people said. The government is looking to sell its entire stake in the carrier, they said. DS Malik, a spokesman of the Ministry of Finance, did not immediately answer two calls made to his mobile phone. Dhananjay Kumar, a spokesman of Air India, declined to comment. The plan is being prepared after the governmentâs attempt to partially exit the carrier failed to attract any bidder last year. In her budget presentation for the current financial year, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the government will revive plans to sell Air India and the divestment would be part of the governmentâs efforts to raise Rs 1,05,000 crore ($15.3 billion) selling stakes in state-run companies. Air India, which is surviving on a Rs 30,000 crore taxpayer-funded bailout, has failed to maintain its market dominance as a slew of carriers including InterGlobe Aviation Ltd and SpiceJet Ltd started to offer ultra-cheap, on-time flights more than a decade ago. The state-run airline has total debts of $8.4 billion and posted losses of more than Rs 7,600 crore last year, according to provisional estimates. |
| Q.2 [11672558] Which of the following statements about the government's plan to disinvest in Air India is correct? |
| 1 It has planned to give off its 100 % stake in the national carrier in the recent round of disinvestment. |
| 2 It has agreed to buy out all of the other investors and become the sole owner of the company. |
| 3 The government believes that the entire stake in Air India should be held by a foreign carrier. |
| 4 For the time being, the government has decided to halt the disinvestment of Air India. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Refer to, âThe government is looking to sell its entire stake in the carrier, they said.â The government has made it clear that it wishes to sell its entire stake in the carrier, which is why it has expressed interest in doing so. We can easily choose Option 1 from the available alternatives because it provides us with the government's accurate decision on Air India's disinvestment. Other choices are irrelevant in the context of the passage and, as a result, are ruled out. |
Direction (1-4): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: India is considering inviting expressions of interest to sell Air India Ltd by the end of next month as the government aims to complete the transaction this year, people with knowledge of the matter said. âThe government will conduct roadshows, as well as, be open to meet prospective buyers even before the expressions of interest are sought,â the people said, declining to be identified as the discussions are private. âThe process will likely allow the bidders to look at the accounts of the airline except for some portions that are confidential and also see the share purchase agreement,â they said without providing details. âThe potential bidders will have the option to make suggestions for changes in the sale terms during the process of expressing their interest in the deal,â the people said. The government is looking to sell its entire stake in the carrier, they said. DS Malik, a spokesman of the Ministry of Finance, did not immediately answer two calls made to his mobile phone. Dhananjay Kumar, a spokesman of Air India, declined to comment. The plan is being prepared after the governmentâs attempt to partially exit the carrier failed to attract any bidder last year. In her budget presentation for the current financial year, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the government will revive plans to sell Air India and the divestment would be part of the governmentâs efforts to raise Rs 1,05,000 crore ($15.3 billion) selling stakes in state-run companies. Air India, which is surviving on a Rs 30,000 crore taxpayer-funded bailout, has failed to maintain its market dominance as a slew of carriers including InterGlobe Aviation Ltd and SpiceJet Ltd started to offer ultra-cheap, on-time flights more than a decade ago. The state-run airline has total debts of $8.4 billion and posted losses of more than Rs 7,600 crore last year, according to provisional estimates. |
| Q.3 [11672558] According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a liberty granted to potential Air India buyers? |
| 1 They would not be able to comprehend the company's financial structure until handing over the funds to the government. |
| 2 They would not be able to see the company's bank account information until depositing the funds. |
| 3 They would not be required to share any financial information with the government. |
| 4 When considering an offer for the airline, they would not have access to all of the company's financial records. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Rationale: Refer to, âThe process willâ¦.providing details.â It is clear from the preceding lines that potential buyers will not be able to examine all of Air India's financials before making an offer to purchase the company. They can look at some of the company's finances because it is expected, but that does not mean that all of the confidential and sensitive information will be shared with the buyers before they purchase. We must choose Option 4 from the available alternatives because we can see that it provides us with the correct answer, while the others are removed because they are out of context. |
Direction (1-4): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: India is considering inviting expressions of interest to sell Air India Ltd by the end of next month as the government aims to complete the transaction this year, people with knowledge of the matter said. âThe government will conduct roadshows, as well as, be open to meet prospective buyers even before the expressions of interest are sought,â the people said, declining to be identified as the discussions are private. âThe process will likely allow the bidders to look at the accounts of the airline except for some portions that are confidential and also see the share purchase agreement,â they said without providing details. âThe potential bidders will have the option to make suggestions for changes in the sale terms during the process of expressing their interest in the deal,â the people said. The government is looking to sell its entire stake in the carrier, they said. DS Malik, a spokesman of the Ministry of Finance, did not immediately answer two calls made to his mobile phone. Dhananjay Kumar, a spokesman of Air India, declined to comment. The plan is being prepared after the governmentâs attempt to partially exit the carrier failed to attract any bidder last year. In her budget presentation for the current financial year, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the government will revive plans to sell Air India and the divestment would be part of the governmentâs efforts to raise Rs 1,05,000 crore ($15.3 billion) selling stakes in state-run companies. Air India, which is surviving on a Rs 30,000 crore taxpayer-funded bailout, has failed to maintain its market dominance as a slew of carriers including InterGlobe Aviation Ltd and SpiceJet Ltd started to offer ultra-cheap, on-time flights more than a decade ago. The state-run airline has total debts of $8.4 billion and posted losses of more than Rs 7,600 crore last year, according to provisional estimates. |
| Q.4 [11672558] According to the passage, which of the following statements about Air India's financial situation is correct? |
| 1 In the last couple of financial years, Air India has lost Rs 7500 crores combined. |
| 2 Due to government restrictions, Air India did not publish its financial results for the previous year. |
| 3 According to Air India's annual report, the company lost more than Rs 7600 crores in the last financial year. |
| 4 Because of the financial burden, Air India has yet to grasp the gravity of the country's financial situation. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3 Rationale: Refer to, âThe state-run airline â¦..according to provisional estimates.â It is clear that Air India is losing money, and it has been reported that the company lost more than Rs 7600 crores in the previous financial year, according to provisional estimates. We can only choose option 3 because it provides us with the correct financial image of the business, while the others can be eliminated because they are incorrect based on the information provided in the passage. |
Direction (5-8): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: The template for a growth process driven by monetary accommodation and fiscal prudence was spelt out rather clearly in the Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament on Thursday. If one were to compare this growth slide with the post-GFC period, it is clear that the Centre has consciously chosen not to go down the path laid out by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee. It is believed, and not without reason, that the fiscal stimulus then administered led to both deficit and inflation going out of gear. Expenditures were poorly managed, with corruption in delivery processes no doubt playing a role in the double digit inflation rates of the UPA-2 years. Yet, from there, it seems a tad excessive to altogether shut out the fiscal option to get the economy moving, particularly when there are better technological processes in place to ensure quality spending. An increase of Rs. 3.3 lakh crore in the projected expenditure of the Centre in 2019-20 over the revised estimates of 2018-19 is insignificant when seen against the Rs. 3.15 lakh crore increase in 2018-19 over the actuals of 2017-18 â given inflation and nominal GDP growth of 12 per cent projected in 2019-20. The Budget is rich in micro details, having proposed several positive steps to galvanize the capital and debt markets, the latter aimed at pushing infrastructure finance. The Centre will back by one-time guarantee the purchase of high-rated pooled assets of NBFCs by PSBs, a move that could ease the liquidity crisis in the sector and help MSMEs conduct their business. Banks will be recapitalized to the extent of Rs. 70,000 crore to boost credit. The transformative potential of Swachh Bharat in recycling waste has received welcome emphasis. But how ânal se jalâ for all by 2024 will become a reality is not very clear. The Modi government has brought about game-changing reforms by way of the bankruptcy code, GST and direct benefit transfers. In the rural space, income transfers indicate a paradigm shift. This vision needs to be carried forward, with private players â creating a stock market niche for social activities is an innovative step. Finally, it is not clear whether the private sector will pick up the tab. In the US and EU, negative interest rates didnât spur investment. Triggers to investment have remained one of those mysteries in economics. |
| Q.5 [11672558] Which of the following best summarises the author's thoughts on the government's budget proposals? |
| 1 The author believes that the Budget does not address the finer points of the economy. |
| 2 Before delving into the specifics, the government failed to consider the details of the economy's macro factors. |
| 3 The author can't seem to figure out how to give in to the private sector without being too blatant about it. |
| 4 The author is cautiously optimistic regarding certain elements and he has praised the government for certain other initiatives. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Rationale: In the provided passage, the author praises some of the government's plans because they have changed the country's ecology, but the rest are unclear in terms of implementation guidelines and execution. The author doubts that the government would be able to carry out these actions. We can see that option 4 is the correct choice out of the offered choices, while the others can be discarded because they do not obey the passage. |
Direction (5-8): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: The template for a growth process driven by monetary accommodation and fiscal prudence was spelt out rather clearly in the Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament on Thursday. If one were to compare this growth slide with the post-GFC period, it is clear that the Centre has consciously chosen not to go down the path laid out by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee. It is believed, and not without reason, that the fiscal stimulus then administered led to both deficit and inflation going out of gear. Expenditures were poorly managed, with corruption in delivery processes no doubt playing a role in the double digit inflation rates of the UPA-2 years. Yet, from there, it seems a tad excessive to altogether shut out the fiscal option to get the economy moving, particularly when there are better technological processes in place to ensure quality spending. An increase of Rs. 3.3 lakh crore in the projected expenditure of the Centre in 2019-20 over the revised estimates of 2018-19 is insignificant when seen against the Rs. 3.15 lakh crore increase in 2018-19 over the actuals of 2017-18 â given inflation and nominal GDP growth of 12 per cent projected in 2019-20. The Budget is rich in micro details, having proposed several positive steps to galvanize the capital and debt markets, the latter aimed at pushing infrastructure finance. The Centre will back by one-time guarantee the purchase of high-rated pooled assets of NBFCs by PSBs, a move that could ease the liquidity crisis in the sector and help MSMEs conduct their business. Banks will be recapitalized to the extent of Rs. 70,000 crore to boost credit. The transformative potential of Swachh Bharat in recycling waste has received welcome emphasis. But how ânal se jalâ for all by 2024 will become a reality is not very clear. The Modi government has brought about game-changing reforms by way of the bankruptcy code, GST and direct benefit transfers. In the rural space, income transfers indicate a paradigm shift. This vision needs to be carried forward, with private players â creating a stock market niche for social activities is an innovative step. Finally, it is not clear whether the private sector will pick up the tab. In the US and EU, negative interest rates didnât spur investment. Triggers to investment have remained one of those mysteries in economics. |
| Q.6 [11672558] Which of the following statements about government investments in the economy, as stated in the Union Budget, is correct? |
| 1 Though it is not guaranteed, the government would ensure that there is more public expenditure in the economy. |
| 2 The government will make certain that the most vulnerable areas are given the attention they deserve. |
| 3 The government does not want to see the economy suffer from a lack of public expenditure in the previous year. |
| 4 The government doesn't want to invest but it wants the private sector to come forward and do so. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: The passage makes it clear that the government has decided to limit government spending in the economy, preferring instead to rely on the private sector to contribute to the economy. The private sector is expected to play a role in the country's growth story, which is why the government has set an ambitious growth target while not increasing public spending. Option 4 is our choice among the available choices, while the others can be eliminated because they are incorrect based on the information provided in the passage. |
Direction (5-8): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: The template for a growth process driven by monetary accommodation and fiscal prudence was spelt out rather clearly in the Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament on Thursday. If one were to compare this growth slide with the post-GFC period, it is clear that the Centre has consciously chosen not to go down the path laid out by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee. It is believed, and not without reason, that the fiscal stimulus then administered led to both deficit and inflation going out of gear. Expenditures were poorly managed, with corruption in delivery processes no doubt playing a role in the double digit inflation rates of the UPA-2 years. Yet, from there, it seems a tad excessive to altogether shut out the fiscal option to get the economy moving, particularly when there are better technological processes in place to ensure quality spending. An increase of Rs. 3.3 lakh crore in the projected expenditure of the Centre in 2019-20 over the revised estimates of 2018-19 is insignificant when seen against the Rs. 3.15 lakh crore increase in 2018-19 over the actuals of 2017-18 â given inflation and nominal GDP growth of 12 per cent projected in 2019-20. The Budget is rich in micro details, having proposed several positive steps to galvanize the capital and debt markets, the latter aimed at pushing infrastructure finance. The Centre will back by one-time guarantee the purchase of high-rated pooled assets of NBFCs by PSBs, a move that could ease the liquidity crisis in the sector and help MSMEs conduct their business. Banks will be recapitalized to the extent of Rs. 70,000 crore to boost credit. The transformative potential of Swachh Bharat in recycling waste has received welcome emphasis. But how ânal se jalâ for all by 2024 will become a reality is not very clear. The Modi government has brought about game-changing reforms by way of the bankruptcy code, GST and direct benefit transfers. In the rural space, income transfers indicate a paradigm shift. This vision needs to be carried forward, with private players â creating a stock market niche for social activities is an innovative step. Finally, it is not clear whether the private sector will pick up the tab. In the US and EU, negative interest rates didnât spur investment. Triggers to investment have remained one of those mysteries in economics. |
| Q.7 [11672558] Which of the following statements about the government's "nal se jal" scheme announced in the Union Budget is/are correct? I. The scheme will be carried out by the Indian government through state governments. II. The government wants to make sure it is enacted within the next five years, or before the end of the current administration's term. III. The author is optimistic about the scheme, believing that it will benefit the country greatly in the future. |
| 1 Both I and II |
| 2 Both II and III |
| 3 Both I and III |
| 4 Only II |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Refer to, âThe transformative potential â¦. is not very clear.â Statement I is incorrect because there is no mention of how the scheme will be implemented in the country. The author has also stated that the execution portion of the scheme is unclear, which is why he is not optimistic about the scheme's success. Statement II is correct because the government has set a deadline of 2024 to complete the scheme. This government will also finish its term in 2024, so saying that the government needs to complete the implementation phase by the end of its term will not be an outlier. Statement III is incorrect because the author is not optimistic about the scheme to provide water to the people of the country because the implementation portion of the Union Budget is not at all clear. |
Direction (5-8): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: The template for a growth process driven by monetary accommodation and fiscal prudence was spelt out rather clearly in the Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament on Thursday. If one were to compare this growth slide with the post-GFC period, it is clear that the Centre has consciously chosen not to go down the path laid out by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee. It is believed, and not without reason, that the fiscal stimulus then administered led to both deficit and inflation going out of gear. Expenditures were poorly managed, with corruption in delivery processes no doubt playing a role in the double digit inflation rates of the UPA-2 years. Yet, from there, it seems a tad excessive to altogether shut out the fiscal option to get the economy moving, particularly when there are better technological processes in place to ensure quality spending. An increase of Rs. 3.3 lakh crore in the projected expenditure of the Centre in 2019-20 over the revised estimates of 2018-19 is insignificant when seen against the Rs. 3.15 lakh crore increase in 2018-19 over the actuals of 2017-18 â given inflation and nominal GDP growth of 12 per cent projected in 2019-20. The Budget is rich in micro details, having proposed several positive steps to galvanize the capital and debt markets, the latter aimed at pushing infrastructure finance. The Centre will back by one-time guarantee the purchase of high-rated pooled assets of NBFCs by PSBs, a move that could ease the liquidity crisis in the sector and help MSMEs conduct their business. Banks will be recapitalized to the extent of Rs. 70,000 crore to boost credit. The transformative potential of Swachh Bharat in recycling waste has received welcome emphasis. But how ânal se jalâ for all by 2024 will become a reality is not very clear. The Modi government has brought about game-changing reforms by way of the bankruptcy code, GST and direct benefit transfers. In the rural space, income transfers indicate a paradigm shift. This vision needs to be carried forward, with private players â creating a stock market niche for social activities is an innovative step. Finally, it is not clear whether the private sector will pick up the tab. In the US and EU, negative interest rates didnât spur investment. Triggers to investment have remained one of those mysteries in economics. |
| Q.8 [11672558] Which of the following statements about the government's reforms in the Union Budget is/are correct? I. The MSME sector would benefit from the government's decision to purchase the NBFCs' high-rated assets. II. The government will provide capital to the country's banks so that they can begin lending more. III. The government has agreed to lower income tax rates for the country's middle-class citizens. |
| 1 Both I and II |
| 2 Both II and III |
| 3 Both I and III |
| 4 Only III |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Statement I is correct because the government has decided to buy high-rated assets from NBFCs and will provide a one-time guarantee to such organisations, as stated in the passage. As a result, the MSME industry will benefit because it will have more access to NBFC credit. Refer to, âThe Budget is rich â¦. to boost credit.â Statement II is also correct in that the government will provide capital to the banks so that they will be interested in lending to the country's MSME sector as well as to others. It will ensure that the economy's growth cycle remains on track. Statement III is incorrect because there is no mention of a reduction in the income tax slab for the country's middle-class population in the passage. As a result, it cannot be described as accurate. |
Direction (9-13): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations Security Council, India has cleared an important hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for 2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week was taken as India was the sole candidate for the post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN General Assembly will vote for five non-permanent seats in June 2020, when India will need to show the support of at least 129 countries to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has previously on seven occasions since 1950-51. There are several reasons why India decided to pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The government at the time had felt it was necessary to have Indiaâs voice at the high table as many times as possible, and therefore began the process for another seat shortly after it had ended its previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that seat would have reached India only in the 2030s, and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because of the special relationship between the two countries. India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. Indiaâs ability to work with both sides is well known. The year 2022 also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it marks the 75th year of Indiaâs Independence, and a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when it first announced the bid, the government has run a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal. It is significant that despite the poor state of bilateral relations with Pakistan, and the many challenges India has faced from China at the UN, both the countries graciously agreed to the nomination. From this point on, it is necessary for the government to think beyond the campaign for the UNSC and work out a comprehensive strategy for what it plans to do with the seat. In the past, India has earned a reputation for âfence-sittingâ by abstaining on votes when it was required to take a considered stand on principle, and the seat will be a chance to undo that image. Given the twin challenges of a rising China, and the U.S. receding from its UN responsibilities, India must consider how it will strengthen the multilateral world order amid frequent unilateral moves by both the world powers. An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include Indiaâs claim to a permanent seat at the high table. |
| Q.9 [11672558] Which among the following is the appropriate equation between the P-5 Nations at the United Nations Security Council? |
| 1 Nations often support one another in any endeavour undertaken by the global body. |
| 2 The countries are divided because they are unable to find a common solution to all of their problems. |
| 3 The nations are divided into two camps and they are at odds with each other on various issues. |
| 4 Because they are tasked with it, UNSC members are primarily concerned with global security issues. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3 Rationale: Refer to, âIndia has a unique â¦.. Russia and China on the other.â The permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are clearly divided in their views, as evidenced by the above lines, and the council is divided into two groups. The United States, the United Kingdom, and France are on one side, and Russia and China are on the other. We can see that Option 3 offers us the correct UNSC situation and group-based politics in the council, while the other options can be ruled out. |
Direction (9-13): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations Security Council, India has cleared an important hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for 2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week was taken as India was the sole candidate for the post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN General Assembly will vote for five non-permanent seats in June 2020, when India will need to show the support of at least 129 countries to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has previously on seven occasions since 1950-51. There are several reasons why India decided to pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The government at the time had felt it was necessary to have Indiaâs voice at the high table as many times as possible, and therefore began the process for another seat shortly after it had ended its previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that seat would have reached India only in the 2030s, and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because of the special relationship between the two countries. India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. Indiaâs ability to work with both sides is well known. The year 2022 also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it marks the 75th year of Indiaâs Independence, and a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when it first announced the bid, the government has run a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal. It is significant that despite the poor state of bilateral relations with Pakistan, and the many challenges India has faced from China at the UN, both the countries graciously agreed to the nomination. From this point on, it is necessary for the government to think beyond the campaign for the UNSC and work out a comprehensive strategy for what it plans to do with the seat. In the past, India has earned a reputation for âfence-sittingâ by abstaining on votes when it was required to take a considered stand on principle, and the seat will be a chance to undo that image. Given the twin challenges of a rising China, and the U.S. receding from its UN responsibilities, India must consider how it will strengthen the multilateral world order amid frequent unilateral moves by both the world powers. An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include Indiaâs claim to a permanent seat at the high table. |
| Q.10 [11672558] Which of the following is true about India's role at the United Nations Security Council during its most recent term? |
| 1 In dealing with various issues concerning the global order of the time, India was very active. |
| 2 India was not concerned with global security issues; instead, it was concerned with safeguarding its own interests. |
| 3 India wanted to help developing countries in every way possible, but it was unable to do so due to a lack of managerial positions. |
| 4 India avoided taking crucial decisions on various warring concerns between the global community members. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Rationale: Refer to, âIn the past, India â¦. that image.â It is clear from the preceding lines that India did not take important decisions on a variety of issues, and that the government actually avoided making decisions when they needed to be made quickly. Option 4, out of the available choices, is our selection because it accurately describes India's role in the previous stint with the UNSC, as well as in several other cases in the past. All of the other alternatives can be ruled out because they do not follow from the passage. |
Direction (9-13): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations Security Council, India has cleared an important hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for 2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week was taken as India was the sole candidate for the post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN General Assembly will vote for five non-permanent seats in June 2020, when India will need to show the support of at least 129 countries to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has previously on seven occasions since 1950-51. There are several reasons why India decided to pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The government at the time had felt it was necessary to have Indiaâs voice at the high table as many times as possible, and therefore began the process for another seat shortly after it had ended its previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that seat would have reached India only in the 2030s, and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because of the special relationship between the two countries. India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. Indiaâs ability to work with both sides is well known. The year 2022 also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it marks the 75th year of Indiaâs Independence, and a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when it first announced the bid, the government has run a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal. It is significant that despite the poor state of bilateral relations with Pakistan, and the many challenges India has faced from China at the UN, both the countries graciously agreed to the nomination. From this point on, it is necessary for the government to think beyond the campaign for the UNSC and work out a comprehensive strategy for what it plans to do with the seat. In the past, India has earned a reputation for âfence-sittingâ by abstaining on votes when it was required to take a considered stand on principle, and the seat will be a chance to undo that image. Given the twin challenges of a rising China, and the U.S. receding from its UN responsibilities, India must consider how it will strengthen the multilateral world order amid frequent unilateral moves by both the world powers. An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include Indiaâs claim to a permanent seat at the high table. |
| Q.11 [11672558] Which among the following should be the end objective of the Indian government when it gets the non-permanent membership of UNSC? |
| 1 Along with other reforms at the UNSC, the government should try to gain a seat in its permanent council. |
| 2 On all current matters concerning the global order, the government should make its position clear. |
| 3 The government should not make it easier for others by taking positions based on their preferences. |
| 4 Other allies should be given seats on the UN Security Council, according to the government. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Refer to, âAn even biggerâ¦.. at the high table.â The author clearly wants the government to take up the challenge of getting India a permanent seat on the United Nations Security Council, as evidenced by the above lines. Option 1 is our pick among the available choices because it provides us with the author's correct opinion on India's ultimate goal after being admitted to the UNSC non-permanent membership group. Others can be ruled out because they don't make sense based on the passage. |
Direction (9-13): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations Security Council, India has cleared an important hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for 2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week was taken as India was the sole candidate for the post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN General Assembly will vote for five non-permanent seats in June 2020, when India will need to show the support of at least 129 countries to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has previously on seven occasions since 1950-51. There are several reasons why India decided to pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The government at the time had felt it was necessary to have Indiaâs voice at the high table as many times as possible, and therefore began the process for another seat shortly after it had ended its previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that seat would have reached India only in the 2030s, and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because of the special relationship between the two countries. India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. Indiaâs ability to work with both sides is well known. The year 2022 also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it marks the 75th year of Indiaâs Independence, and a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when it first announced the bid, the government has run a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal. It is significant that despite the poor state of bilateral relations with Pakistan, and the many challenges India has faced from China at the UN, both the countries graciously agreed to the nomination. From this point on, it is necessary for the government to think beyond the campaign for the UNSC and work out a comprehensive strategy for what it plans to do with the seat. In the past, India has earned a reputation for âfence-sittingâ by abstaining on votes when it was required to take a considered stand on principle, and the seat will be a chance to undo that image. Given the twin challenges of a rising China, and the U.S. receding from its UN responsibilities, India must consider how it will strengthen the multilateral world order amid frequent unilateral moves by both the world powers. An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include Indiaâs claim to a permanent seat at the high table. |
| Q.12 [11672558] How did India gain the right to run for a non-permanent seat on the UN Security Council in the years 2021-22? |
| 1 India managed to convince all the other permanent members of the UN security council. |
| 2 India was unable to persuade the UNSC to be dissolved due to its failure to act, which is why India applied. |
| 3 Because Afghanistan backed out after being persuaded by India, India could apply for non-permanent membership. |
| 4 Although some other countries initially objected, India was set to become a non-permanent member of the UNSC this year. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3 Rationale: Refer to, âBy rotation, that seatâ¦the two countries.â From the preceding lines, it is clear that India had to persuade Afghanistan to withdraw from the election for non-permanent membership of the United Nations Security Council. We must select Option 3 from the available options because it provides the correct answer, while the others can be eliminated because they are incorrect based on the information provided in the passage. |
Direction (9-13): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations Security Council, India has cleared an important hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for 2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week was taken as India was the sole candidate for the post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN General Assembly will vote for five non-permanent seats in June 2020, when India will need to show the support of at least 129 countries to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has previously on seven occasions since 1950-51. There are several reasons why India decided to pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The government at the time had felt it was necessary to have Indiaâs voice at the high table as many times as possible, and therefore began the process for another seat shortly after it had ended its previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that seat would have reached India only in the 2030s, and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because of the special relationship between the two countries. India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. Indiaâs ability to work with both sides is well known. The year 2022 also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it marks the 75th year of Indiaâs Independence, and a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when it first announced the bid, the government has run a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal. It is significant that despite the poor state of bilateral relations with Pakistan, and the many challenges India has faced from China at the UN, both the countries graciously agreed to the nomination. From this point on, it is necessary for the government to think beyond the campaign for the UNSC and work out a comprehensive strategy for what it plans to do with the seat. In the past, India has earned a reputation for âfence-sittingâ by abstaining on votes when it was required to take a considered stand on principle, and the seat will be a chance to undo that image. Given the twin challenges of a rising China, and the U.S. receding from its UN responsibilities, India must consider how it will strengthen the multilateral world order amid frequent unilateral moves by both the world powers. An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include Indiaâs claim to a permanent seat at the high table. |
| Q.13 [11672558] Which of the following statements about India's relationship with UNSC permanent members is correct? |
| 1 India has no diplomatic relations with other UNSC members, but it will now have to establish new ones. |
| 2 India wants to make certain that there is no comparison between developed and developing countries, and that only developed countries are invited. |
| 3 India enjoys good relations with all of its members and is not partial to any nation or alliance. |
| 4 Because it has never been entrusted with such responsibilities, India must analyze its relationships with other countries. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3 Rationale: Refer to, âIndia has a â¦.. both sides is well known.â As can be seen from the preceding lines, India has a balanced relationship with all camps in the UN Security Council, which explains why it is able to collaborate with both sides. Option 3 is the best choice among the choices because it gives us the correct comparison of the Indian government to the other nations. Other alternatives can be ruled out because they contradict the information in the passage. |
Direction (14-18): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: Insurance regulator IRDAI has allowed distribution of all micro-insurance products through point-of-sales (PoS), with an aim further increase insurance penetration in the country. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has created a special category of insurance policies called micro-insurance policies to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society. A micro-insurance policy is a general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. Agreeing to the suggestions of insurance companies, IRDAI in a circular has done away with the practice of pre-fixing the word âPoSâ on life, general and health products sold through PoS. The regulator said it has received representations from insurance companies requesting to do away with the prefix âPOSâ in the product name. Insurers made representations to change the norms that made it mandatory for every policy sold through the âPoint of Sales Personsâ to be separately identified and pre-fixed by the name âPOSâ. IRDAI said the requirement was to identify the person involved in the sales process. The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, 2017, under the matters to be stated in life, general and health insurance policy, makes it mandatory to give the details of the person involved in the sales process. âBy virtue of this requirement, the need to have the prefix âPoSâ becomes redundant as the insurance policy itself will carry the details of the person selling such a policy,â the regulator said. The Authority, âhereby, discontinues requirements'' of using the word âPoSâ prefixed before the PoS product name for life, general and health products. Similarly, IRDAI said it has been observed that advantages such as higher insurance penetration, lower prices, increased choice to customers, which would otherwise accrue to the policyholder by making micro-insurance products available through POS channels are being lost. âTherefore, the Authority after reviewing the position, hereby allows all Micro Insurance products of Life, General and Health insurance to be distributed through the POS also,â the circular said. On the manner of dealing with cases of health/personal accident (PA) policies where sum insured crosses the limit specified under the POS guidelines, IRDAI said the sponsoring entity is allowed to recognise such policies as being sourced by the POS and pay the fees to the POS. |
| Q.14 [11672558] Which of the following statements about Micro Insurance policies issued by Indian insurance companies is/are correct? I. Microinsurance policies are designed to provide coverage to members of the underprivileged community. II. Micro insurance policies are those with a sum assured of Rs 50000 or less. III. Only banks and insurance companies can issue microinsurance policies because the IRDAI has not allowed anyone else to do so. |
| 1 Both I and II |
| 2 Only II |
| 3 Only III |
| 4 Both I and III |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Refer to, âThe Insurance Regulatory â¦..assured of Rs 50,000 or less.â Statement I am correct because it is stated that micro insurance policies are intended to be distributed to individuals from the lower socioeconomic strata of society. Statement II is also correct, since micro insurance policies are designed to cover amounts up to Rs 50000 or less. Statement III is incorrect because it is never stated whether banks and insurance companies are the only ones allowed to sell microinsurance policies in the country, or whether point-of-sale personnel are also eligible, which is the passage's main point. So, both Statements I and II are accurate. |
Direction (14-18): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: Insurance regulator IRDAI has allowed distribution of all micro-insurance products through point-of-sales (PoS), with an aim further increase insurance penetration in the country. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has created a special category of insurance policies called micro-insurance policies to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society. A micro-insurance policy is a general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. Agreeing to the suggestions of insurance companies, IRDAI in a circular has done away with the practice of pre-fixing the word âPoSâ on life, general and health products sold through PoS. The regulator said it has received representations from insurance companies requesting to do away with the prefix âPOSâ in the product name. Insurers made representations to change the norms that made it mandatory for every policy sold through the âPoint of Sales Personsâ to be separately identified and pre-fixed by the name âPOSâ. IRDAI said the requirement was to identify the person involved in the sales process. The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, 2017, under the matters to be stated in life, general and health insurance policy, makes it mandatory to give the details of the person involved in the sales process. âBy virtue of this requirement, the need to have the prefix âPoSâ becomes redundant as the insurance policy itself will carry the details of the person selling such a policy,â the regulator said. The Authority, âhereby, discontinues requirements'' of using the word âPoSâ prefixed before the PoS product name for life, general and health products. Similarly, IRDAI said it has been observed that advantages such as higher insurance penetration, lower prices, increased choice to customers, which would otherwise accrue to the policyholder by making micro-insurance products available through POS channels are being lost. âTherefore, the Authority after reviewing the position, hereby allows all Micro Insurance products of Life, General and Health insurance to be distributed through the POS also,â the circular said. On the manner of dealing with cases of health/personal accident (PA) policies where sum insured crosses the limit specified under the POS guidelines, IRDAI said the sponsoring entity is allowed to recognise such policies as being sourced by the POS and pay the fees to the POS. |
| Q.15 [11672558] Which of the following statements best explains the IRDAI's new guidelines for removing the prefix POS from the names of insurance policies sold by POS? |
| 1 Because it regulates the insurance industry in the country, the IRDAI is not allowed to sell policies online, but it does need to keep track of the approved intermediaries. |
| 2 Insurance companies in India must include the policy nature prefix in any policy they sell, according to the IRDAI. |
| 3 The IRDAI now has information on the point-of-sale personnel in India who sell insurance policies, and it makes no sense to distinguish such policies by name. |
| 4 All policies issued by micro insurance agents must be sold only through point-of-sale staff, according to the IRDAI. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Refer to, âThe IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, â¦such a policy,â It is clear from the preceding lines that the IRDAI has made it mandatory to include information about the point of sale personal selling insurance policies in the country, and therefore the prefix in the product's name is no longer required. Option 1 is incorrect because it makes no sense because the IRDAI is the authority and will not issue guidelines on its own, while choice 2 can be removed because the rationale given in this option is incorrect. Option 4 can also be ruled out due to inaccuracies in the information provided. Only Option 3 explains the real reason for the IRDAI's new guidelines on the POS channel for selling insurance policies. |
Direction (14-18): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: Insurance regulator IRDAI has allowed distribution of all micro-insurance products through point-of-sales (PoS), with an aim further increase insurance penetration in the country. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has created a special category of insurance policies called micro-insurance policies to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society. A micro-insurance policy is a general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. Agreeing to the suggestions of insurance companies, IRDAI in a circular has done away with the practice of pre-fixing the word âPoSâ on life, general and health products sold through PoS. The regulator said it has received representations from insurance companies requesting to do away with the prefix âPOSâ in the product name. Insurers made representations to change the norms that made it mandatory for every policy sold through the âPoint of Sales Personsâ to be separately identified and pre-fixed by the name âPOSâ. IRDAI said the requirement was to identify the person involved in the sales process. The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, 2017, under the matters to be stated in life, general and health insurance policy, makes it mandatory to give the details of the person involved in the sales process. âBy virtue of this requirement, the need to have the prefix âPoSâ becomes redundant as the insurance policy itself will carry the details of the person selling such a policy,â the regulator said. The Authority, âhereby, discontinues requirements'' of using the word âPoSâ prefixed before the PoS product name for life, general and health products. Similarly, IRDAI said it has been observed that advantages such as higher insurance penetration, lower prices, increased choice to customers, which would otherwise accrue to the policyholder by making micro-insurance products available through POS channels are being lost. âTherefore, the Authority after reviewing the position, hereby allows all Micro Insurance products of Life, General and Health insurance to be distributed through the POS also,â the circular said. On the manner of dealing with cases of health/personal accident (PA) policies where sum insured crosses the limit specified under the POS guidelines, IRDAI said the sponsoring entity is allowed to recognise such policies as being sourced by the POS and pay the fees to the POS. |
| Q.16 [11672558] Which of the following statements about IRDAI's goal of allowing the distribution of microinsurance policies through the POS delivery channel is correct? |
| 1 The POS channel is the most widely used distribution network in the world, and most people rely solely on it. |
| 2 Banks and insurance companies are keen to ensure that the microinsurance products sold in India are not the same as those sold elsewhere in the world. |
| 3 Micro insurance policies are not as prevalent as standard policies, according to the IRDAI, and they should be phased out. |
| 4 The IRDAI is interested in expanding insurance coverage to a larger number of individuals across the country. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4 Rationale: Refer to, âInsurance regulator IRDAI...penetration in the country.â It is clear that the IRDAI's sole goal in allowing the distribution of micro insurance policies through the POS channel is to increase the country's insurance coverage, and since micro insurance policies are only available to the poor, it would be ideal to make them available through this channel of distribution. Option 1 is incorrect because it does not provide the real reason for the IRDAI's decision to allow the POS channel to begin distribution of micro insurance policies, while Option 2 is also incorrect because the phrase does not make sense and can easily be deleted. Option 3 is incorrect because it contradicts the information provided in the passage. Only alternative 4 explains why the IRDAI made the decision it did about the distribution of microinsurance policies. |
Direction (14-18): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: Insurance regulator IRDAI has allowed distribution of all micro-insurance products through point-of-sales (PoS), with an aim further increase insurance penetration in the country. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has created a special category of insurance policies called micro-insurance policies to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society. A micro-insurance policy is a general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. Agreeing to the suggestions of insurance companies, IRDAI in a circular has done away with the practice of pre-fixing the word âPoSâ on life, general and health products sold through PoS. The regulator said it has received representations from insurance companies requesting to do away with the prefix âPOSâ in the product name. Insurers made representations to change the norms that made it mandatory for every policy sold through the âPoint of Sales Personsâ to be separately identified and pre-fixed by the name âPOSâ. IRDAI said the requirement was to identify the person involved in the sales process. The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, 2017, under the matters to be stated in life, general and health insurance policy, makes it mandatory to give the details of the person involved in the sales process. âBy virtue of this requirement, the need to have the prefix âPoSâ becomes redundant as the insurance policy itself will carry the details of the person selling such a policy,â the regulator said. The Authority, âhereby, discontinues requirements'' of using the word âPoSâ prefixed before the PoS product name for life, general and health products. Similarly, IRDAI said it has been observed that advantages such as higher insurance penetration, lower prices, increased choice to customers, which would otherwise accrue to the policyholder by making micro-insurance products available through POS channels are being lost. âTherefore, the Authority after reviewing the position, hereby allows all Micro Insurance products of Life, General and Health insurance to be distributed through the POS also,â the circular said. On the manner of dealing with cases of health/personal accident (PA) policies where sum insured crosses the limit specified under the POS guidelines, IRDAI said the sponsoring entity is allowed to recognise such policies as being sourced by the POS and pay the fees to the POS. |
| Q.17 [11672558] According to the details given in the passage, which of the following is/are right? I. Beyond the allowable limit of coverage, the POS channel can also be used to distribute insurance policies. II. Insurance companies are primarily to blame for the IRDAI's decision to remove the prefix "POS'' from the names of insurance products. III. Only IRDAI will be able to use the POS channel for the distribution of insurance products; no other insurance company will be able to use it. |
| 1 Both II and III |
| 2 Both I and II |
| 3 Both I and III |
| 4 Only II |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 3 Rationale: Statement I is correct because it is stated in the passage that the POS channel of distribution will be used to provide policies that exceed the IRDAI's allowable coverage limit for that channel. Refer to, âOn the manner of â¦he fees to the POS.â Statement II is correct because it is true that the insurance companies made representations to do away with the requirement that all insurance products sold through this channel of distribution include the prefix POS. Refer to, âInsurers made representations ⦠the name âPOSâ.â Statement III is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage that IRDAI can only sell insurance policies through the POS channel and not through insurance companies. This is absurd because IRDAI is the regulator and does not sell insurance. So, statements I and II are correct according to the details elaborated in the passage. |
Direction (14-18): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: Insurance regulator IRDAI has allowed distribution of all micro-insurance products through point-of-sales (PoS), with an aim further increase insurance penetration in the country. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has created a special category of insurance policies called micro-insurance policies to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society. A micro-insurance policy is a general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. Agreeing to the suggestions of insurance companies, IRDAI in a circular has done away with the practice of pre-fixing the word âPoSâ on life, general and health products sold through PoS. The regulator said it has received representations from insurance companies requesting to do away with the prefix âPOSâ in the product name. Insurers made representations to change the norms that made it mandatory for every policy sold through the âPoint of Sales Personsâ to be separately identified and pre-fixed by the name âPOSâ. IRDAI said the requirement was to identify the person involved in the sales process. The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholderâs Interest) Regulations, 2017, under the matters to be stated in life, general and health insurance policy, makes it mandatory to give the details of the person involved in the sales process. âBy virtue of this requirement, the need to have the prefix âPoSâ becomes redundant as the insurance policy itself will carry the details of the person selling such a policy,â the regulator said. The Authority, âhereby, discontinues requirements'' of using the word âPoSâ prefixed before the PoS product name for life, general and health products. Similarly, IRDAI said it has been observed that advantages such as higher insurance penetration, lower prices, increased choice to customers, which would otherwise accrue to the policyholder by making micro-insurance products available through POS channels are being lost. âTherefore, the Authority after reviewing the position, hereby allows all Micro Insurance products of Life, General and Health insurance to be distributed through the POS also,â the circular said. On the manner of dealing with cases of health/personal accident (PA) policies where sum insured crosses the limit specified under the POS guidelines, IRDAI said the sponsoring entity is allowed to recognise such policies as being sourced by the POS and pay the fees to the POS. |
| Q.18 [11672558] Which of the following statements about the benefits that did not exist prior to the IRDAI's decision to allow microinsurance products to be sold through the POS channel is/are correct? |
| 1 Policyholders had fewer options from which to choose among the insurance products available on the market. |
| 2 Policyholders were unable to take advantage of insurance companies' lower and more competitive premiums. |
| 3 The insurance companies were not looking for policyholders to accept their policies without any customizations from the insurance companies. |
| 4 Both 1 and 2 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 1 Rationale: Refer to, âSimilarly, IRDAI said.... the POS also,â the circular said.â Statement 1 is now correct, as IRDAI has acknowledged that policyholders had fewer options in the past because microinsurance products were not available through the POS channel of distribution. Statement 2 is also correct because, with the availability of microinsurance products via the POS channel of distribution, premiums will become lower and more competitive as each insurance firm tries to entice customers with lower premiums. Statement 3 is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage that prior to the IRDAI's decision to allow micro insurance products to be sold through the POS channel of distribution, insurance companies offered policies without any kind of customization. This is something that can be avoided. |
| Q.19 [11672558] Directions for question (19): The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer. (1). Certain structures, such as the amygdala and the hippocampus, play key roles but trying to find memory in one specific area is simply impossible. (2). Although there are indeed anatomical regions that appear to serve relatively specific functions, oneâs memory is not formed, stored or recalled within the activity of any single brain region. (3). It would be like trying to listen to Beethovenâs Fifth but hearing only the strings (duh duh duh, duuuh!). (4). Instead, memory, in its broadest sense, lies in the uniqueness of a brainâs entire connective structure, known as the connectome. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2134 Your Answer : 2134 2 is the opening sentence as it talks about memory not being confined to any single brain region. This is expanded in 1. 1 talks about the impossibility of trying to find memory in one specific area. 3 suggests what is mentioned in 1 as an analogy. This is followed by 4. Hence, the correct sequence is 2134. |
| Q.20 [11672558] Directions for question (20): The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer. (1). Combing all of the published literature on the subject of the cost reductions in lithium-ion cells, he found very different measures of the historical improvement. (2). But because the underlying data varied so much, âthe recommendations that the researchers were making could be quite different.â (3). And across a variety of different papers, researchers were using these trends to make suggestions about how to further reduce costs of lithium-ion technologies or when they might meet cost targets. (4). The new findings are not just a matter of retracing the history of battery development, but of helping to guide the future, Ziegler points out. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4132 Your Answer : 4231 Neither 2 nor 3 can be the opening sentence as they begin with âButâ and âAndâ respectively. Between 4 and 1, 4 will be the opening because it uses a proper noun âZeiglarâ and âheâ in 1 is used to refer to âZeiglarâ. This also makes 41 a pair. âAndâ in 3 signals continuation of what is mentioned in 1. ââ¦the recommendationsâ in 2 refers to âsuggestionsâ in 3. Hence, the correct sequence is 4132. |
| Q.21 [11672558] Directions for question (21): The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the authorâs position. The concept of destiny is not at all synonymous with the concept of ânecessityâ. Necessity, as the immanent and causal link joining objective processes in a series of âifâ¦thenâ connections, may form the ontological content of destiny, but it does not necessarily do so. In theological and teleological worldviews, destiny most often is precisely that which does not spring from necessity. The whim or fancy of a god may become destiny. The accidental may become destiny, and so may an act that springs from âfree willâ. |
| 1 Destiny and necessity are different conceptual entities without any shared boundary. |
| 2 The concepts of destiny and necessity may look similar, but they are essentially different worldviews. |
| 3 Conceptually, necessity and destiny have some commonalities, but they are not identical. |
| 4 Destiny may give rise to the essence of necessity but not the vice-versa. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 2 In this paragraph, the main point of the author is the topic sentence which also happens to be the opening sentence. Everything else in the paragraph is an explanation of that idea. So, option 3 is the clear answer. The author essentially means that destiny and necessity are conceptually different, but they have some similarities. Option 1 â âAny shared boundaryâ is factually incorrect. The paragraph hints at some commonalities. Option 2 â These are not worldviews. Option 4 â This is a totally irrelevant option. The author doesnât mention anything about the cause of the âessence of necessityâ. |
| Q.22 [11672558] Directions for question (22): Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. (1). Eighty per cent of Indiaâs freshwater is used in agriculture, making it a critical resource for the livelihoods of farmers and the countryâs food security. (2). Farmers rely heavily on groundwater through wells and tube-wells. (3). The crisis created by large-scale groundwater extraction needs concerted and scaled-up water management efforts in rural India. (4). Women have been creating consistent ripples in Indiaâs water security efforts â the time is right to leverage them as leaders of change. (5). India alone has 88 million people who lack access to safe water, placing the nation at the centre of this global problem. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 5 The correct sequence is 5123. 4 talks about womenâs effort for Indiaâs water security, whereas the remaining four sentences talk about consumption of water and water crisis in India. Hence, 4 is the odd one out. |
| Q.23 [11672558] Directions for question (23): The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer. 1. He had a talent for plumbing the depths of the human heart to create indelible characters; the strong women characters he scripted were brought to life by artists such as Rakhi, Smita Patil, Rekha and Shabana Azmi. 2. It was partly the result of his own choices and partly because the kind of films he wrote, with their literary flair, well-observed psychological details and sharp dialogue, had increasingly ceased to interest the audience. 3. But even with his short filmography, Sarhadi left a lasting impact. 4. Despite his five decades in Bollywood, Sagar Sarhadiâs filmography is brief. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4231 Your Answer : 4231 Sentence 4 is the obvious opener. Sentence 2 follows next because it explains the reason why Sarhadiâs filmography was brief. Sentence 3 follows next because even though Sarhadiâs filmography was short, it had created a lasting impact. Sentence 1 concludes the paragraph. |
| Q.24 [11672558] Directions for question (24): The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the authorâs position. The Shipman story illustrates the two complementary components of statistical literacy. First is the ability to carry out statistical investigations leading to clear communication of what the data reveals. The second vital component is the ability to read about a claim based on data, while also having an idea of how to critique the numbers and a sense of which questions to ask. Statistics often give some answers, but they generally raise even more questions. This kind of statistical literacy is difficult to teach. It cannot be reduced to formulae and algorithms â it is best learned through repeated experience and mentoring, almost as an apprenticeship. It takes time and effort to learn the art of statistics. |
| 1 Collecting and analyzing data from statistical investigations is a skill that requires some skill and effort. |
| 2 Generally, statisticians understand that their investigations may not answer all questions, but they do teach a valuable lesson. |
| 3 The two components of statistical literacy focus on the ability to carry out statistical investigations and the ability to analyze claims based on those investigations. |
| 4 Learning statistics is not an easy task as illustrated by The Shipman story. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 3 The main point of the author is that statistical investigations are tricky. Collecting and analyzing those data require a skill. This skill also requires time and effort. So, option 1 is the clear answer. Option 2 â This is outside the scope of the paragraph. Option 3 â This is too narrow. Option 4 â This just juxtaposes two sentences from the paragraph. It misses the main idea of the paragraph. |
| Q.25 [11672558] Directions for question (25): Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. In the north-west, however, positive changes in Indiaâs relations with Pakistan have been elusive. 2. These include the rights of minorities, cross-border movement of people, and river water sharing. 3. Hopes have been rekindled by the agreement late last month between the two military establishments to a ceasefire on the border. 4. Burying the past is never easy. 5. The expectations for change have been reinforced by Pakistan Army Chief General Qamar Javed Bajwaâs speech last week at a conference in Islamabad, when he called on India and Pakistan to âbury the past and move forwardâ. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 4 The correct sequence of the sentences is 1354. These four sentences refer to the strenuous relationship that exists between India and Pakistan. Sentence 2 is generic and talks about certain issues. However, it cannot be said with certainty that sentence 2 pertains to the relationship between India and Pakistan. |
| Q.26 [11672558] Directions for question (26): The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the authorâs position. For one to be considered fluent, they must be in a position to speak or perform the language with fluency and accuracy. Some people may understand a second language well though they may face difficulties in speaking the language. Such people cannot therefore be considered proficient in a language. In addition, however much one learns a second language, they might never be in a position to use the language in the same way they use their native language. People also prejudice against a different language. They normally have judgments on a second language. Some believe that they cannot communicate fully. These intuitions normally deter people from learning or using the second language. |
| 1 People try to learn a second language, but they are discouraged by myriad factors. |
| 2 For someone to be fluent in a second language, factors such as being judgemental or prejudiced may be hurdles. |
| 3 Lack of fluency, inability to master a native language, and failure to communicate affect the ability of people to learn a language. |
| 4 Some factors such as lack of fluency, accuracy, and natural prejudice deter people from trying to learn a second language. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 4 The main points of the paragraph are: ⢠People can be considered fluent in a second language. ⢠Some factors affect the ability of people to learn a second language. So, option 2 is the correct answer. Options 1 and 4 are wrong because they talk about factors that discourage people from âtrying to learn a second languageâ. The paragraph doesnât talk about trying but actually learning a second language. Option 3 â It talks about language in general, not a second language. |
| Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. John, a CEO of company Z, attends 5 types of meetings in his company - M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. He attended the meetings for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day he attended at least one meeting. The duration (in hour/s) for which he attended each of the meetings is given below:  The following facts are also known: (i) He attends exactly one meeting at a time and does not attend the same type of meeting in any two consecutive days. Further, he does not attend the same type of meeting more than once in any day. (ii) John attended for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days. (iii) The duration for which he attended the meeting on Sunday was double the duration for which he attended the meeting on Saturday. (iv) On Wednesday he attended the meeting for 1.5 hours less than he did on Monday, and the day on which he attended the meeting for the least duration was not Tuesday. (v) The day he attended the meeting for 5 hours comes after the day he attended the meeting for 3 hours in the week. |
| Q.27 [11672558] On how many days John attended more than two meetings? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 2  |
| Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. John, a CEO of company Z, attends 5 types of meetings in his company - M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. He attended the meetings for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day he attended at least one meeting. The duration (in hour/s) for which he attended each of the meetings is given below: The following facts are also known: (i) He attends exactly one meeting at a time and does not attend the same type of meeting in any two consecutive days. Further, he does not attend the same type of meeting more than once in any day. (ii) John attended for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days. (iii) The duration for which he attended the meeting on Sunday was double the duration for which he attended the meeting on Saturday. (iv) On Wednesday he attended the meeting for 1.5 hours less than he did on Monday, and the day on which he attended the meeting for the least duration was not Tuesday. (v) The day he attended the meeting for 5 hours comes after the day he attended the meeting for 3 hours in the week. |
| Q.28 [11672558] Which of the following meetings did he attend for the maximum number of times in the week? |
| 1 M1 |
| 2 M2 |
| 3 M3 |
| 4 Either M2 or M3 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. John, a CEO of company Z, attends 5 types of meetings in his company - M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. He attended the meetings for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day he attended at least one meeting. The duration (in hour/s) for which he attended each of the meetings is given below: The following facts are also known: (i) He attends exactly one meeting at a time and does not attend the same type of meeting in any two consecutive days. Further, he does not attend the same type of meeting more than once in any day. (ii) John attended for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days. (iii) The duration for which he attended the meeting on Sunday was double the duration for which he attended the meeting on Saturday. (iv) On Wednesday he attended the meeting for 1.5 hours less than he did on Monday, and the day on which he attended the meeting for the least duration was not Tuesday. (v) The day he attended the meeting for 5 hours comes after the day he attended the meeting for 3 hours in the week. |
| Q.29 [11672558] For how many hours did he attend the meeting on Monday? |
| 1 4.5 |
| 2 3.5 |
| 3 3 |
| 4 2.5 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. John, a CEO of company Z, attends 5 types of meetings in his company - M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. He attended the meetings for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day he attended at least one meeting. The duration (in hour/s) for which he attended each of the meetings is given below: The following facts are also known: (i) He attends exactly one meeting at a time and does not attend the same type of meeting in any two consecutive days. Further, he does not attend the same type of meeting more than once in any day. (ii) John attended for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days. (iii) The duration for which he attended the meeting on Sunday was double the duration for which he attended the meeting on Saturday. (iv) On Wednesday he attended the meeting for 1.5 hours less than he did on Monday, and the day on which he attended the meeting for the least duration was not Tuesday. (v) The day he attended the meeting for 5 hours comes after the day he attended the meeting for 3 hours in the week. |
| Q.30 [11672558] What is the maximum number of days he may attend a single meeting? |
| 1 None |
| 2 One |
| 3 Two |
| 4 Three |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.31 [11672558] If Harry sold 10 cigarettes on three consecutive days, while Ronald sold 10 cigarettes only once during the five days, what was the price of a cigarette at the end of Wednesday? |
| 1 Rs. 120 |
| 2 Rs. 130 |
| 3 Rs. 140 |
| 4 Rs. 150 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.32 [11672558] If Ronald ended up with Rs. 100 less cash than Harry at the end of Friday, which of the following is true about the number of cigarettes possessed by Ronald and Harry at the end of Friday? |
| 1 Ronald had 10 less cigarettes than Harry. |
| 2 Ronald had 10 more cigarettes than Harry. |
| 3 Harry had 20 more cigarettes than Ronald. |
| 4 Both had the same number of cigarettes. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.33 [11672558] If Harry ended up with Rs. 1,600 more cash than Ronald at the end of Friday, what was Hermione's BP at the end of Thursday? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 130  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.34 [11672558] What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Harry and Ronald at the end of Friday? |
| 1 Rs. 6,500 |
| 2 Rs. 6,000 |
| 3 Rs. 6,200 |
| 4 Rs. 5,600 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.35 [11672558] If Ronald bought 10 cigarettes only once during the five days, what was the difference between the cash owned by Harry and Ronald at the end of Friday? |
| 1 Rs. 500 |
| 2 Rs. 1,300 |
| 3 Rs. 2,100 |
| 4 Rs. 2,700 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Two gamblers, Harry and Ronald, played a kind of game in which they decided to buy and sell their cigarettes over five days from Monday to Friday of the same week according to Hermione's blood pressure. At the beginning on Monday, Hermione's BP was 130, while at the end of Friday her BP was 140. At the end of each day, her BP either went up by 10, or else, came down by 10. Both Harry and Ronald noted Hermione's BP at the end of each day. Note: The closing price of a cigarette is equal to the BP at the end of the day. (i) The BP at the beginning of a given day was the same as the BP at the end of the previous day. (ii) Harry and Ronald started with the same number of cigarettes and amount of cash, and had enough of both. (iii) Each day if the BP went up, Harry sold 10 cigarettes at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the BP went down, he bought 10 cigarettes at the closing price. (iv) If on any day, the ending BP was above 140, then Ronald sold 10 cigarettes, while if the BP was below 120, he bought 10 cigarettes, all at the closing price. (v) If the BP at the end of Tuesday was higher than the BP at the end of Monday, it was observed that the BP at the end of Wednesday was even higher than the BP at the end of Tuesday. |
| Q.36 [11672558] What could have been the minimum possible increase in combined cash balance of Harry and Ronald at the end of Friday? |
| 1 Rs. 1,600 |
| 2 Rs. 3,100 |
| 3 Rs. 2,700 |
| 4 Rs. 500 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight teams participated in a T20 cricket tournament during the four years mentioned in the table. In any year, the winning team receives the highest prize money, the first runner-up receives the second highest prize money, the second runner-up receives the third highest prize money, and so on. No two teams received the same prize money during any year. The teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) receive one-sixteenth or less of the total prize money during any given year. The table given below provides some incomplete information about prize money distributed during the given four years.  It is also known that: (i) In the year 2017, the winning team received 20% more of the prize money than the first runner-up. All the teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR), while participating this year put together, received 28% of the total prize money. (ii) None of the participating teams have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) in the year 2018. The difference between the prize money received by any pair of teams during this year, except the winner, was at least Rs. 5,000. (iii) The first runner-up received Rs. 18,000 more than the second runner-up in the year 2020. The average price money received by the second runner-up and the third runner-up during this year was Rs.30,000. |
| Q.37 [11672558] What was the total prize money (in Rs.) distributed in the year 2017? |
| 1 3,30,000 |
| 2 3,40,000 |
| 3 3,50,000 |
| 4 3,60,000 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight teams participated in a T20 cricket tournament during the four years mentioned in the table. In any year, the winning team receives the highest prize money, the first runner-up receives the second highest prize money, the second runner-up receives the third highest prize money, and so on. No two teams received the same prize money during any year. The teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) receive one-sixteenth or less of the total prize money during any given year. The table given below provides some incomplete information about prize money distributed during the given four years. It is also known that: (i) In the year 2017, the winning team received 20% more of the prize money than the first runner-up. All the teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR), while participating this year put together, received 28% of the total prize money. (ii) None of the participating teams have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) in the year 2018. The difference between the prize money received by any pair of teams during this year, except the winner, was at least Rs. 5,000. (iii) The first runner-up received Rs. 18,000 more than the second runner-up in the year 2020. The average price money received by the second runner-up and the third runner-up during this year was Rs.30,000. |
| Q.38 [11672558] What was the minimum prize money (in Rs.) received by the first runner-up in the year 2018? (Assume all teams receive prize money in integer values.) |
| 1 54,001 |
| 2 58,000 |
| 3 50,001 |
| 4 54,000 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1  |
| Directions for questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight teams participated in a T20 cricket tournament during the four years mentioned in the table. In any year, the winning team receives the highest prize money, the first runner-up receives the second highest prize money, the second runner-up receives the third highest prize money, and so on. No two teams received the same prize money during any year. The teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) receive one-sixteenth or less of the total prize money during any given year. The table given below provides some incomplete information about prize money distributed during the given four years. It is also known that: (i) In the year 2017, the winning team received 20% more of the prize money than the first runner-up. All the teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR), while participating this year put together, received 28% of the total prize money. (ii) None of the participating teams have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) in the year 2018. The difference between the prize money received by any pair of teams during this year, except the winner, was at least Rs. 5,000. (iii) The first runner-up received Rs. 18,000 more than the second runner-up in the year 2020. The average price money received by the second runner-up and the third runner-up during this year was Rs.30,000. |
| Q.39 [11672558] How many teams participating in the year 2019 have negative Net Run Rate (NRR)? (Assume all teams receive prize money in integer values.) |
Solution: Correct Answer : 5 Your Answer : 5  |
| Directions for questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight teams participated in a T20 cricket tournament during the four years mentioned in the table. In any year, the winning team receives the highest prize money, the first runner-up receives the second highest prize money, the second runner-up receives the third highest prize money, and so on. No two teams received the same prize money during any year. The teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) receive one-sixteenth or less of the total prize money during any given year. The table given below provides some incomplete information about prize money distributed during the given four years. It is also known that: (i) In the year 2017, the winning team received 20% more of the prize money than the first runner-up. All the teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR), while participating this year put together, received 28% of the total prize money. (ii) None of the participating teams have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) in the year 2018. The difference between the prize money received by any pair of teams during this year, except the winner, was at least Rs. 5,000. (iii) The first runner-up received Rs. 18,000 more than the second runner-up in the year 2020. The average price money received by the second runner-up and the third runner-up during this year was Rs.30,000. |
| Q.40 [11672558] The total prize money of all the teams that have negative Net Run Rate (NRR) during the year 2020 is what percent of the total prize money distributed? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 24 Your Answer : 24  |
| Directions for questions 41 to 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school survey, 500 students were asked to choose from their four favourite subjects - Mathematics, Physics, History and English. Each student had to choose at least one subject. It is also known that: (i) Everyone who chose Mathematics also chose Physics. (ii) The number of students who chose all four subjects was one-third of the number of students who chose exactly three subjects. (iii) 100 students chose History but not English. (iv) 140 students chose Mathematics but not History. (v) Among those students who did not choose Mathematics, 80 students chose Physics and at least one other subject, while 200 students did not choose Physics. (vi) 180 students chose exactly one subject. (vii) Every student who chose History chose at most one other subject. |
| Q.41 [11672558] How many students chose only Physics? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 80 Your Answer : 80  |
| Directions for questions 41 to 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school survey, 500 students were asked to choose from their four favourite subjects - Mathematics, Physics, History and English. Each student had to choose at least one subject. It is also known that: (i) Everyone who chose Mathematics also chose Physics. (ii) The number of students who chose all four subjects was one-third of the number of students who chose exactly three subjects. (iii) 100 students chose History but not English. (iv) 140 students chose Mathematics but not History. (v) Among those students who did not choose Mathematics, 80 students chose Physics and at least one other subject, while 200 students did not choose Physics. (vi) 180 students chose exactly one subject. (vii) Every student who chose History chose at most one other subject. |
| Q.42 [11672558] How many students chose at least one among History and English? |
| 1 280 |
| 2 250 |
| 3 180 |
| 4 Cannot be determined |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1  |
| Directions for questions 41 to 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school survey, 500 students were asked to choose from their four favourite subjects - Mathematics, Physics, History and English. Each student had to choose at least one subject. It is also known that: (i) Everyone who chose Mathematics also chose Physics. (ii) The number of students who chose all four subjects was one-third of the number of students who chose exactly three subjects. (iii) 100 students chose History but not English. (iv) 140 students chose Mathematics but not History. (v) Among those students who did not choose Mathematics, 80 students chose Physics and at least one other subject, while 200 students did not choose Physics. (vi) 180 students chose exactly one subject. (vii) Every student who chose History chose at most one other subject. |
| Q.43 [11672558] Among the students who chose exactly one subject, which of the following subjects was chosen as their favourite by the maximum number of students? |
| 1 Physics |
| 2 English |
| 3 History |
| 4 Cannot be determined |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 41 to 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school survey, 500 students were asked to choose from their four favourite subjects - Mathematics, Physics, History and English. Each student had to choose at least one subject. It is also known that: (i) Everyone who chose Mathematics also chose Physics. (ii) The number of students who chose all four subjects was one-third of the number of students who chose exactly three subjects. (iii) 100 students chose History but not English. (iv) 140 students chose Mathematics but not History. (v) Among those students who did not choose Mathematics, 80 students chose Physics and at least one other subject, while 200 students did not choose Physics. (vi) 180 students chose exactly one subject. (vii) Every student who chose History chose at most one other subject. |
| Q.44 [11672558] Information regarding which of the following would be sufficient to determine the exact number of students who chose any combination of subjects as their favourite? |
| 1 The number of students who chose Physics as their favourite subject. |
| 2 The number of students who chose both History and English as their favourite subjects. |
| 3 The number of students who chose only Physics and English as their favourite subjects. |
| 4 More than one of the above. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below:  Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.45 [11672558] How many doors in this escape room can be opened by anyone in just one way? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 7 Your Answer : 4  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below: Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.46 [11672558] Which of the following is true for a cabin on which number â0â is written? |
| 1 The door can be opened by anyone who is in the same row and same column. |
| 2 The door can be opened in at least four ways. |
| 3 The door cannot be opened by any one. |
| 4 The door can be opened in at least one way. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below: Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.47 [11672558] Which of the following rows or columns has exactly two cabin doors that cannot be opened by anyone? |
| 1 The 3rd column |
| 2 The 2nd column |
| 3 The 5th row |
| 4 The 4th row |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 2  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below: Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.48 [11672558] Which of the following statements is true about this escape room? |
| 1 Each row has at least two cabin doors which can be opened in an equal number of ways. |
| 2 Each row has a cabin door which can be opened in 5 or more ways. |
| 3 All cabin doors, on which number 8 is written, can be opened in at least 5 ways. |
| 4 Each row has a cabin door which cannot be opened by anyone. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below: Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.49 [11672558] How many cabin doors are there which can be opened by more than 4 ways? |
| 1 5 |
| 2 2 |
| 3 3 |
| 4 4 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Directions for questions 45 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a ground of size 5 x 5, an escape room is built in which 25 square cabins are made of the same size. Each door of the cabin has a number written on it. The escape room with square cabins is as shown below: Note: The number written inside any square (cabin) represents the door number of that particular cabin. A person âXâ can open a cabin door if all the three conditions are met: (i) Person X can open the cabin door in the same column or in the same row. (ii) The number on the cabin door that X wants to open must be larger than the number on the cabin in which X is, no matter how many doors are there between person X and desired cabin door. (iii) If there is/are any door(s) between person X and the desired cabin door, such door number(s) must be smaller than the number on the cabin in which X is. Example: Cabin number 7 (3rd row 4th column) can be opened by person X in four ways. It can be opened by door 3 and 5 on its left, by door 6 on its right and by door 4 above the cabin. |
| Q.50 [11672558] If four people enter the escape room from four different corners, then how many of them can reach any other corner (same column or same row) of the room except the corner from which they entered? |
| 1 2 |
| 2 1 |
| 3 0 |
| 4 3 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Q.51 [11672558] Find the number of real-valued solution(s) of the equation 4x + 4âx = 6 â (x â 2)2. |
| 1 1 |
| 2 0 |
| 3 2 |
| 4 More than 2 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1  |
| Q.52 [11672558] Two cars X and Y started moving towards each other simultaneously from two places A and B respectively, which are 60 km apart. They meet after 6 hours. After their meeting, X reduced its speed by 2 km/h and Y increased its speed by 2 km/h. They arrived at B and A respectively at the same time. Find the initial speed (in km/h) of X. |
| 1 8 |
| 2 4 |
| 3 6 |
| 4 10 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
Q.53 [11672558]  |
Solution: Correct Answer : 53 Your Answer : 53  |
| Q.54 [11672558] A cone whose height and base radius are in the ratio of 3 : 1 fits exactly inside a sphere. Find the ratio of the volume of the cone to that of the sphere. |
| 1 81 : 500 |
| 2 64 : 343 |
| 3 49 : 250 |
| 4 36 : 125 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 1  |
| Q.55 [11672558] Amit spent Rs. 40,000 to buy a cycle and a tab. He sold the cycle at 10% profit and the tab at 10% loss. If overall he made a 4% profit, then the cost price (in Rs.) of the cycle is |
| 1 12,000 |
| 2 26,000 |
| 3 18,000 |
| 4 28,000 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Q.56 [11672558] A mother brings some chocolates for her children. First child takes one-third of the total number of chocolates along with one extra, then second child takes one-third of the remaining chocolates along with one extra, and then third child takes one-third of the remaining chocolates along with one extra. Then, the mother distributes the remaining chocolates equally among the three children and takes one chocolate for herself. How many minimum chocolates were there initially? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 51 Your Answer : 147  |
| Q.57 [11672558] An alloy is prepared by mixing four components P, Q, R and S in the proportion 9 : 5 : 3 : 2 by volume. Weights of the same volume of the components P, Q, R and S are in the ratio 6 : 3 : 4 : 3. Find the weight (in kg) of the component Q in 261 kg of the alloy. |
| 1 27 |
| 2 45 |
| 3 36 |
| 4 54 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 2  |
| Q.58 [11672558] What is the area (in sq. units) enclosed by the lines x â 4 = 0, y â |x â 4| â 5 = 0, the X-axis and the Y-axis? |
| 1 24 |
| 2 28 |
| 3 30 |
| 4 26 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2  |
| Q.59 [11672558] What is the mean of all four digit odd natural numbers of the form âxxyyâ, where x > 2? |
| 1 6050 |
| 2 4466 |
| 3 6565 |
| 4 6655 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Q.60 [11672558] Train A of length 100 m moving at 54 km/h and train B of length 150 m moving at 90 km/h running on parallel tracks enter a 200 m long tunnel at the same instant from opposite directions. Which train exits the tunnel first and at the moment it exits, what length of the other train is still in the tunnel? |
| 1 A, 60 m |
| 2 B, 90 m |
| 3 B, 10 m |
| 4 A, 40 m |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 2  |
| Q.61 [11672558] From a rectangular cardboard sheet of area 192 sq. cm, two equal circular plates touching each other and of maximum area have been cut out. If the area of the sheet left is one-third of the total area of the two circular plates, then find the perimeter (in cm) of the rectangular sheet. |
1  |
2  |
3  |
4  |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3  |
| Q.62 [11672558] The health department of a City municipal corporation conducts a survey for dispensing the Covid 19 vaccine. It is found that 20% of the population is above 45 years out of which 60% is between 45 and 60. Also, 55% of those above 45 years have comorbidities and 30% of these people are between 45 and 60 years. What percentage of population above 60 years of age have no comorbidities? |
| 1 7.7% |
| 2 3.75% |
| 3 2.25% |
| 4 1.15% |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 1  |
| Q.63 [11672558] If a function Æ(x) satisfies Æ(1) = 2520 and Æ(1) + Æ(2) + ... + Æ(n) = n2 f(n), for all positive integers n > 1, then the value of f(7) is |
Solution: Correct Answer : 90 Your Answer : 90  |
| Q.64 [11672558] If 5a = 62, 6b = 72, 7c = 82, 8d = 92,⦠, 24t = 252, then the product abcd ⦠st is |
| 1 212 |
| 2 220 |
| 3 221 |
| 4 2 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3 Your Answer : 3  |
| Q.65 [11672558] Raghav invested a certain sum of money at 7% simple interest per annum. After a year Rajeev invested 80% of the sum invested by Raghav at 4 percentage point higher rate of simple interest per annum. At the end of six years, the difference between the total amount with Raghav and Rajeev is Rs.3,780. Find the investment (in Rs.) made by Rajeev. |
Solution: Correct Answer : 16800 Your Answer : 16800  |
| Q.66 [11672558] If for all values of x > k, the expressions 6x â 24, 5x + 25 and 7x â 12 can be lengths of the sides of a triangle, then the least possible integral value of k is |
| 1 8 |
| 2 12 |
| 3 20 |
| 4 28 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1 Your Answer : 3  |
| Q.67 [11672558] An express train travelled from A at 4/5th of its usual speed, and hence reached B 40 minutes after the scheduled time. On its return journey, the train initially travelled from B at its usual speed for 40 minutes but then stopped for 20 minutes. If the distance between two places A and B is 120 km, then what must be the new speed (in km/hr) of the train now so as to reach A at the scheduled time? |
| 1 90 |
| 2 54 |
| 3 64 |
| 4 72 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2 Your Answer : 1  |
| Q.68 [11672558] If xy + z â x = yx + z â y = zx + y â z = 1, then (xyz)x + y + z = ? |
| 1 xx yy zz |
| 2 xy yz zx |
| 3 xz yy zx |
| 4 x2x y2y z2z |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 1  |
| Q.69 [11672558] The quadratic equations x2 â 2px + 3q = 0 and x2 â 4qx + 5p = 0 have real roots. If p and q are positive integers, then what is the smallest possible value of 3p + 2q? |
Solution: Correct Answer : 13 Your Answer : 13  |
| Q.70 [11672558] Let a, b, c and d be four prime numbers such that the sum of a and the average of b, c and d is 7. The sum of b and the average of a, c and d is 9. The sum of c and the average of b and d is 9. Then the sum of a and d is |
Solution: Correct Answer : 9 Your Answer : 9  |
| Q.71 [11672558] The sum of different integer solutions that satisfy the equation (x2 - 6x + 9)x2 -4 = 1 is |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4 Your Answer : 4  |
| Q.72 [11672558] Two vessels V1 and V2 of equal capacities, are each filled to half their capacities with solutions of acid and water. The ratio of acid and water in V1 and V2 are 2 : 3 and 1 : 2 respectively. Now, 33.33% of the solution is transferred from V1 to V2 and then, equal quantity of solution is transferred from V2 back to V1. Find the ratio of acid and water in V1 now. |
| 1 15 : 28 |
| 2 23 : 37 |
| 3 5 : 16 |
| 4 11 : 23 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 2  |
| Q.73 [11672558] If p, q, r and s are positive integers such that pq = 384, qr = 144, rs = 48 and 1 < s < 24, then the maximum possible value of p + q + r + s is |
| 1 75 |
| 2 60 |
| 3 54 |
| 4 96 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 4  |
| Q.74 [11672558] PQRS is a parallelogram of sides 13 cm and 5 cm and its area is 52 cm2. Point X and Y are on the longer sides PQ and RS respectively such that PX = RY and XY is perpendicular to longer diagonal QS. Find the length (in cm) of PX. |
| 1 4 |
| 2 5 |
| 3 4.5 |
| 4 6.5 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3  |
| Q.75 [11672558] Rahul travels to office by car every day. If he goes by bus it takes him 50% more time to cover the same distance. One morning his car breaks down at half the distance, it takes him 6 minutes to catch a bus to go to office. Travelling in this way he saves 10% time as compared to that taken by bus to cover the whole journey. Find the time taken if he travels by bus to cover the same distance. |
| 1 1 hour 15 minutes |
| 2 2 hours |
| 3 1 hour 30 minutes |
| 4 1 hour 45 minutes |
Solution: Correct Answer : 3  |
Q.76 [11672558]  |
| 1 2 |
| 2 3 |
| 3 4 |
| 4 1 |
Solution: Correct Answer : 1  |
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